Nursing Elites

1. When examining an infant, which area should the nurse examine first?

• A. Ear
• B. Nose
• C. Throat
• D. Abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining an infant, the nurse should start by examining the least-distressing areas first before moving on to more invasive areas. The abdomen is typically the least distressing area to examine, so it should be assessed first. Examining the eye, ear, nose, and throat are considered more invasive and should be saved for last. Therefore, the correct choice is to examine the abdomen first to ensure a comfortable and less distressing examination process for the infant. Choices A, B, and C (Ear, Nose, Throat) are more invasive areas and should be examined after the abdomen.

2. A nurse caring for a client diagnosed with pertussis is ordered to maintain droplet precautions. Which of the following actions of the nurse upholds droplet precautions?

• A. Assign the client to stay in a negative-pressure room
• B. Use sterilized equipment when sharing between this client and another person with pertussis
• C. Wear a mask if coming within 3 feet of the client
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client requiring droplet precautions, it is essential for the nurse to wear a mask when within 3 feet of the client. This practice helps prevent the transmission of droplet particles that may be produced when the client coughs or sneezes. Assigning the client to a negative-pressure room is not typically necessary for droplet precautions unless specifically indicated for airborne precautions. Using sterilized equipment when sharing between clients with pertussis is important for infection control but does not directly relate to droplet precautions. Therefore, the correct action to uphold droplet precautions in this scenario is to wear a mask when coming within close proximity to the client.

3. The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old male patient. Which assessment finding would be considered normal?

• A. Decrease in body weight from his younger years
• B. Decrease in deposits of fat in the cheeks and forearms
• C. Presence of kyphosis and flexion in bilateral knees and hips
• D. Change in overall body proportion, including a longer trunk and shorter extremities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an 80-year-old male patient, the presence of kyphosis (rounded upper back) and flexion in bilateral knees and hips are considered normal age-related changes. These postural changes are commonly seen in older adults due to structural changes in the spine and joints. Option A is incorrect as aging individuals typically experience a decrease in body weight, not an increase. Option B is also incorrect as there is usually a decrease in subcutaneous fat from the face and periphery, rather than an increase in fat deposits in specific areas. Option D is incorrect because the change in overall body proportion with aging usually involves a shorter trunk and relatively longer extremities, not the other way around. This is because long bones do not shorten with age, leading to this characteristic change in body proportions.

4. During an office visit, the healthcare provider is assessing a patient's skin. What part of the hand and technique would be used to best assess the patient's skin temperature?

• A. Fingertips
• B. Dorsal surface of the hand
• C. Ulnar portion of the hand
• D. Palmar surface of the hand

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the dorsal surface of the hand. The dorsa (backs) of the hands and fingers are best for determining temperature because the skin is thinner on the dorsal surfaces than on the palms. Fingertips are best for fine, tactile discrimination and not for assessing skin temperature. The ulnar and palmar surfaces of the hands are not as effective for assessing skin temperature as the dorsal surface because they have thicker skin layers.

5. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

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