Nursing Elites

1. When examining an infant, which area should the nurse examine first?

• A. Ear
• B. Nose
• C. Throat
• D. Abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining an infant, the nurse should start by examining the least-distressing areas first before moving on to more invasive areas. The abdomen is typically the least distressing area to examine, so it should be assessed first. Examining the eye, ear, nose, and throat are considered more invasive and should be saved for last. Therefore, the correct choice is to examine the abdomen first to ensure a comfortable and less distressing examination process for the infant. Choices A, B, and C (Ear, Nose, Throat) are more invasive areas and should be examined after the abdomen.

2. A nurse is completing an incident report about a medication error that she made when she accidentally administered too much insulin to a diabetic client. All of the following are components of this documentation EXCEPT:

• A. The reason for administering the wrong dose
• B. The type of drug involved
• C. The amount of insulin that was given
• D. Any adverse effects on the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When completing an incident report for a medication error, it is essential to include factual information such as the type of drug involved, the amount administered, and any adverse effects on the client. However, stating the reason for administering the wrong dose should be avoided in documentation. The focus should be on reporting what happened rather than assigning blame or admitting fault. This approach helps in ensuring a thorough and accurate account of the medication error without introducing subjective elements that could complicate the investigation or resolution process. Therefore, the correct answer is 'The reason for administering the wrong dose.' Choices A, B, and D are vital components of incident report documentation, providing crucial details that help in understanding the error and its impact on the client.

3. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to reduce environmental stimuli that may cause discomfort for a client?

• A. Loosen pressure dressings on wounds
• B. Use assistance to lift a client in bed
• C. Check temperature of water used in a sponge bath
• D. Position the client in a prone position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To reduce environmental stimuli that may cause discomfort for a client, nurses can implement various interventions. Checking the temperature of the water used in a sponge bath is crucial to prevent burns from water that is too hot or discomfort from water that is too cold. This intervention addresses a common source of discomfort for clients during personal care. Loosening pressure dressings on wounds, although important for wound care, does not directly address environmental stimuli. Using assistance to lift a client in bed is about proper positioning and preventing injury rather than reducing environmental stimuli. Positioning the client prone is not a suitable intervention for reducing discomfort caused by environmental stimuli.

4. A client has just started a transfusion of packed red blood cells that a physician ordered. Which of the following signs may indicate a transfusion reaction?

• A. The client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills
• B. The client develops dependent edema in the extremities
• C. The client has a seizure
• D. The client's heart rate drops to 60 bpm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is when the client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills. Signs of a transfusion reaction include back pain, chills, dizziness, increased temperature, and blood in the urine. These signs indicate a possible adverse reaction to the blood transfusion. Dependent edema in the extremities is not typically associated with a transfusion reaction. A seizure is not a common sign of a transfusion reaction unless it is due to severe complications. A decrease in heart rate to 60 bpm is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction, but rather bradycardia may indicate other underlying conditions or medications.

5. Why should a palpated pressure be performed before auscultating blood pressure?

• A. To more clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds.
• B. To detect the presence of an auscultatory gap.
• C. To avoid missing a falsely elevated blood pressure.
• D. To more readily identify phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a palpated pressure before auscultating blood pressure helps in detecting the presence of an auscultatory gap. An auscultatory gap is a period during blood pressure measurement when Korotkoff sounds temporarily disappear before reappearing. Inflation of the cuff 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point where a palpated pulse disappears helps in identifying this gap. This technique ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by preventing the underestimation of blood pressure values. The other options are incorrect because palpating the pressure is not primarily done to hear Korotkoff sounds more clearly, avoid missing falsely elevated blood pressure, or readily identify a specific phase of Korotkoff sounds.

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