Nursing Elites

1. In addition to standard precautions, the nurse caring for a patient with rubella would plan to implement what type of precautions?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Universal precautions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella is an illness transmitted by large-particle droplets, so the nurse should implement droplet precautions in addition to standard precautions. Airborne precautions are used for diseases spread through small particles in the air, such as tuberculosis, varicella, and rubeola. Contact precautions are utilized for diseases transmitted by direct contact with the patient or their environment. Universal precautions and body substance isolations are part of the CDC's standard precautions recommendations, but do not specifically address the transmission route of rubella.

2. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the 'problem' part of a nursing diagnosis?

• A. Grimacing
• B. Anxiety
• C. Oxygenation saturation 93%
• D. Output 500 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The problem part of a nursing diagnosis in the context of nursing care plans should focus on the client's response to a life process, event, or stressor. This response is what is used to identify the nursing diagnosis. 'Anxiety' is the most appropriate descriptor for the problem part of a nursing diagnosis as it reflects a psychological response that can be addressed by nursing interventions. 'Grimacing' is a physical manifestation and not the problem itself. 'Oxygenation saturation 93%' and 'Output 500 mL in 8 hours' are data points or cues that a nurse would use to formulate the nursing diagnostic statement, not the actual problem being addressed.

3. When caring for a patient with latex allergy, the healthcare provider creates a latex-safe environment by doing which of the following?

• A. Carefully cleaning the wall-mounted blood pressure device before using it.
• B. Donning latex gloves outside the room to limit powder dispersal.
• C. Using a latex-free pharmacy protocol.
• D. Placing the patient in a semi-private room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Creating a latex-safe environment for a patient with latex allergy is crucial to prevent allergic reactions. Using a latex-free pharmacy protocol is essential as it ensures that medications and supplies provided to the patient are free of latex components. Cleaning a wall-mounted blood pressure device may not be sufficient as the device itself may contain latex parts that can trigger an allergic reaction. Donning latex gloves, even outside the room, is not recommended as powder dispersal can cause issues; only non-latex gloves should be used in a latex-safe environment. Placing the patient in a semi-private room does not directly address the need to eliminate latex exposure from medical supplies and equipment, which is better achieved through a latex-free pharmacy protocol.

4. The UAP who has just been accepted to nursing school says to a client, 'You must be so pleased with your progress.' The nurse later explains to the UAP that this is an example of what type of question?

• A. Close-ended question
• B. Open-ended question
• C. Leading question
• D. Neutral question

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement 'You must be so pleased with your progress' is an example of a leading question. Leading questions guide the respondent towards a particular answer or response, potentially biasing the data collected. In this scenario, the UAP's question implies that the client should be pleased with their progress, steering the client's response. Closed-ended questions typically elicit brief factual responses or a 'yes' or 'no.' Open-ended questions encourage clients to provide detailed responses and share their thoughts and feelings freely. Neutral questions do not lead or influence the client's response, allowing for unbiased information gathering.

5. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?

• A. Once a shift
• B. Once an hour
• C. Every 2 hours
• D. Every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.

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