Nursing Elites

1. In addition to standard precautions, the nurse caring for a patient with rubella would plan to implement what type of precautions?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Universal precautions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella is an illness transmitted by large-particle droplets, so the nurse should implement droplet precautions in addition to standard precautions. Airborne precautions are used for diseases spread through small particles in the air, such as tuberculosis, varicella, and rubeola. Contact precautions are utilized for diseases transmitted by direct contact with the patient or their environment. Universal precautions and body substance isolations are part of the CDC's standard precautions recommendations, but do not specifically address the transmission route of rubella.

2. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?

• A. Immediately see a social worker
• B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
• C. Start prophylactic Pentamidine treatment
• D. Seek counseling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

3. The most accurate reading for a temperature is done:

• A. Orally
• B. Aurally through a clean canal
• C. Rectally
• D. Axially

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Aural readings are done through the ear canal. The tympanic membrane shares a blood supply with the hypothalamus, the brain area that regulates body temperature. Taking the temperature aurally through a clean canal ensures an accurate reading. Choice A (Orally) is not the most accurate method for temperature measurement as it can be affected by external factors like drinking hot or cold liquids. Choice C (Rectally) is invasive and less practical for routine temperature monitoring. Choice D (Axially) is not a standard method for temperature measurement and may not provide accurate results.

4. Which of the following descriptions best describes the function of the thyroid gland?

• A. The thyroid gland converts glucose into glycogen
• B. The thyroid gland secretes cortisol during times of stress
• C. The thyroid gland regulates body metabolism
• D. The thyroid gland affects skin pigmentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The thyroid gland is responsible for secreting thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which work to regulate the metabolism of the body's cells. The primary function of the thyroid gland is to control the body's metabolic rate, affecting processes such as heart rate, temperature regulation, and energy levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the thyroid gland is not involved in converting glucose into glycogen, secreting cortisol, or affecting skin pigmentation. Instead, the primary role of the thyroid gland is to regulate the metabolism and energy balance in the body.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

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