Nursing Elites

1. What is the likely cause of pericarditis in a young patient?

• A. Heart failure
• B. Acute MI
• C. Hypertension
• D. Infectious processes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In younger patients, pericarditis is typically caused by an infection commonly triggered by viruses like the Coxsackie virus, streptococcus, staphylococcus, or Haemophilus influenzae. Infectious processes are the leading cause of pericarditis in younger individuals. Heart failure, Acute MI, and Hypertension are not common causes of pericarditis in young patients. In older adults, acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a more common cause of pericarditis.

2. What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?

• A. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake.
• B. Teach the patient how to use the Cred method.
• C. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only.
• D. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.

3. Which of these clients is likely to receive sublingual morphine?

• A. A 75-year-old woman in a hospice program
• B. A 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery
• C. A 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia
• D. A 60-year-old man who has a painful incision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a 75-year-old woman in a hospice program. Sublingual morphine is commonly used in hospice care because patients may have difficulty swallowing, and intravenous access can be uncomfortable and not ideal for palliative care. Choice B, a 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery, is less likely to receive sublingual morphine as he may be able to swallow, and other pain management options may be more suitable. Choice C, a 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia, would typically require specific medications targeting neuropathic pain rather than sublingual morphine. Choice D, a 60-year-old man with a painful incision, may benefit from localized pain relief or other systemic pain management options, but sublingual morphine is not usually the first choice for this type of pain.

4. A man is prescribed lithium to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse is most concerned about lithium toxicity when he notices which of these assessment findings?

• A. The patient states he had a manic episode a week ago
• B. The patient states he has been having diarrhea every day
• C. The patient presents as severely depressed
• D. The patient has a rash and pruritus on his arms and legs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is when the patient states he has been having diarrhea every day. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, which can increase the risk of lithium toxicity. The other options, such as a manic episode, severe depression, or rash and pruritus, are not directly associated with an increased risk of lithium toxicity.

5. The parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease is receiving feeding instructions from the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis?

• A. Provide smaller, more frequent feedings.
• B. Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
• C. Thin the feedings by adding water to the formula.
• D. Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves the backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to sphincter issues. To reduce episodes of emesis, it is recommended to thicken feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula. This helps to weigh down the contents in the stomach, making regurgitation less likely. Providing smaller, more frequent feedings and burping the infant frequently are beneficial strategies for gastroesophageal reflux. However, in this case, thickening the feedings is the most appropriate intervention. Thinning the feedings by adding water to the formula is not recommended as it can decrease the caloric density of the formula and may not help in reducing reflux.

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