NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. What is the likely cause of pericarditis in a young patient?
- A. Heart failure
- B. Acute MI
- C. Hypertension
- D. Infectious processes
Correct answer: Infectious processes
Rationale: In younger patients, pericarditis is typically caused by an infection commonly triggered by viruses like the Coxsackie virus, streptococcus, staphylococcus, or Haemophilus influenzae. Infectious processes are the leading cause of pericarditis in younger individuals. Heart failure, Acute MI, and Hypertension are not common causes of pericarditis in young patients. In older adults, acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a more common cause of pericarditis.
2. A client asks the nurse about including her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. Which of the following is an appropriate initial statement by the nurse?
- A. Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.
- B. Tell each child what he can do to help with the baby.
- C. Suggest that your husband spend more time with the boys.
- D. Ask the children what they would like to do for the newborn.
Correct answer: Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.
Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to guide the client on the initial steps in involving her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. The most appropriate response is to 'Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.' In an expanded family, parents should prioritize reassuring older children that they are loved and as important as the newborn. This response acknowledges the importance of ensuring the well-being and emotional adjustment of the older siblings during the transition period. Choices B, C, and D are less appropriate as they do not directly address the emotional needs and adjustment of the older children during this significant family change.
3. A patient with severe Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease is receiving discharge teaching. Which of these statements by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?
- A. ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.''
- B. ''I'm going to make sure to remain upright after meals and elevate my head when I sleep.''
- C. ''I won't be drinking tea or coffee or eating chocolate anymore.''
- D. ''I'm going to start trying to lose some weight.''
Correct answer: ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.''
Rationale: The correct answer is ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.'' This statement indicates a need for more teaching because large meals increase the volume and pressure in the stomach, delaying gastric emptying, and worsening symptoms of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD). The recommended approach is to eat smaller, more frequent meals (4-6 small meals a day) to reduce acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate good understanding of GERD management by highlighting the importance of staying upright after meals, avoiding trigger foods like tea, coffee, and chocolate, and addressing weight management, which are all appropriate strategies to manage GERD symptoms.
4. Which finding indicates to the nurse that a patient's transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placed 3 months ago has been effective?
- A. Increased serum albumin level
- B. Decreased indirect bilirubin level
- C. Improved alertness and orientation
- D. Fewer episodes of bleeding varices
Correct answer: Fewer episodes of bleeding varices
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fewer episodes of bleeding varices.' A transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is used to reduce pressure in the portal venous system, thus decreasing the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This outcome would indicate the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. The other choices are incorrect because: Increased serum albumin level and decreased indirect bilirubin level are not direct indicators of TIPS effectiveness. Improved alertness and orientation could be influenced by various factors and may not directly correlate with the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. Additionally, TIPS can actually increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy, which contradicts the choice of improved alertness and orientation.
5. A nurse is educating a patient about bimatoprost (Lumigan) eyedrops for the treatment of Glaucoma. Which of the following indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of the expected outcomes following treatment?
- A. "I should be experiencing less blurriness in my central field of vision"
- B. "This medication won't help my vision at all, but will keep it from getting worse."
- C. "My peripheral vision should be increasing back to its normal state, but will take a few weeks to do so."
- D. "This medication will help my eye restor intraocular fluid and increase intraocular pressure"
Correct answer: "This medication won't help my vision at all, but will keep it from getting worse."
Rationale: Glaucoma cannot be cured, just treated. Treatment revolves around preventing further deterioration.
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