Nursing Elites

1. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

• A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
• B. "I can't see on my left side."?
• C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
• D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

2. After performing an assessment of an infant with bladder exstrophy, the nurse prepares a plan of care. The nurse identifies which problem as the priority for the infant?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Impaired tissue integrity
• C. Inability to suck and swallow
• D. Lack of knowledge about the disease (parents)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In bladder exstrophy, the bladder is exposed and external to the body, leading to impaired tissue integrity related to the exposed bladder mucosa as the priority problem. Urinary incontinence is not a concern as the infant is not yet toilet trained. Inability to suck and swallow is unrelated to the disorder. While educating the parents about the condition is important, it is not the priority over addressing the immediate risk of impaired tissue integrity in the infant.

3. A patient is being treated in the Neurology Unit for Meningitis. Which of these is a priority assessment for the nurse to make?

• A. Assess the patient for nuchal rigidity
• B. Determine the patient's past exposure to infectious organisms
• C. Check the patient's WBC lab values
• D. Monitor for increased lethargy and drowsiness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring for increased lethargy and drowsiness is crucial as these symptoms indicate a decreased level of consciousness, which is the cardinal sign of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP). Elevated ICP can lead to serious complications and requires immediate intervention. Assessing for nuchal rigidity is important in suspected cases of meningitis but monitoring lethargy and drowsiness takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ICP. Determining past exposure to infectious organisms and checking WBC lab values are important for diagnosing and treating meningitis but do not directly address the immediate concern of increased ICP.

4. To prepare a 56-year-old male patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse should?

• A. place the patient on NPO status.
• B. assist the patient to lie flat in bed.
• C. ask the patient to empty the bladder.
• D. position the patient on the right side.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prepare a patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse should ask the patient to empty the bladder. This is important to decrease the risk of bladder perforation during the procedure. The patient should be positioned in Fowler's position to facilitate the procedure, not lie flat in bed, which can compromise breathing. Placing the patient on NPO status is unnecessary as sedation is not typically required for paracentesis. Positioning the patient on the right side is not a standard preparatory measure for paracentesis.

5. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

• A. Weight gain of 5 pounds
• B. Edema of the ankles
• C. Gastric irritability
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.

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