during the admission assessment on a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate since it is assoc
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Questions

1. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

2. An infant has just returned to the nursing unit after surgical repair of a cleft lip on the right side. The nurse should place the infant in which best position at this time?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After surgical repair of a cleft lip on the right side, the nurse should position the infant carefully to ensure comfort and prevent complications. Placing the infant in the prone position or on the stomach is not recommended as it may cause rubbing of the surgical site against the mattress. The optimal position for the infant is the left lateral position, away from the surgical repair site, to minimize the risk of trauma. Placing the infant on the right lateral position would be contraindicated as it is on the side of the repair. Additionally, positioning the infant upright on the back can help prevent airway obstruction by secretions, blood, or the tongue. Therefore, the correct choice is to place the infant in the left lateral position to promote safety and comfort post cleft lip surgery.

3. A mother brings her 26-month-old to the well-child clinic. She expresses frustration and anger due to her child's constant saying 'no' and refusal to follow her directions. The nurse explains this is normal for his age, as negativism is attempting to meet which developmental need?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Erikson's theory of development, toddlers struggle to assert independence. They often use the word 'no' even when they mean yes. This stage is called autonomy versus shame and doubt. The child's behavior of saying 'no' and resisting directions reflects the developmental need for independence, not trust (option A), initiative (option B), or self-esteem (option D). Trust is typically associated with early infancy, initiative with preschool age, and self-esteem with later childhood and adolescence.

4. A 7-year-old child is seen in a clinic, and the pediatrician documents a diagnosis of nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis. What information should the nurse provide to the parents?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is common in children and is characterized by a child who has never been dry at night for extended periods. Most children eventually outgrow bedwetting without therapeutic intervention. This condition is due to the child being unable to sense a full bladder and not awakening to void, often related to delayed maturation of the central nervous system. It is important for parents to understand that nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is not caused by a psychiatric problem, does not typically require surgical intervention, and usually resolves on its own over time.

5. The healthcare professional in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the healthcare professional finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention in this scenario is to start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm. The patient's low blood pressure (95/60) and elevated pulse rate (110 beats per minute) indicate a potential hemorrhage, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. Starting a large-bore IV will allow for rapid administration of fluids to stabilize the patient's condition. Asking for a stool sample, preparing to insert an NG tube, or administering morphine sulfate should not take precedence over addressing the hemodynamic instability and potential hemorrhage observed in the patient. These actions may be considered later in the patient's care, but the primary focus should be on addressing the critical issue of fluid replacement and stabilization.

Similar Questions

A client is undergoing radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer. Following the radiation, the client develops xerostomia. Which of the following best describes this condition?
A patient scheduled for cataract surgery asks the nurse why they developed cataracts and how to prevent it in the future. What is the nurse's best response?
In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:
The nurse is planning care for a client during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?
In which order should the nurse take the following actions for an older patient with new onset confusion who is normally alert and oriented?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses