Nursing Elites

1. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

• A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
• B. "I can't see on my left side."?
• C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
• D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

2. A client presents with symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, fever, chills, and extreme fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following illnesses could the nurse consider for this client?

• A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Infectious mononucleosis
• D. Norovirus infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms of sore throat, fever, chills, swollen lymph nodes, and extreme fatigue are characteristic of infectious mononucleosis. The diagnosis is confirmed through the client's history and blood tests for the Epstein-Barr virus. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) presents with localized skin infections, not the systemic symptoms described. Hepatitis B typically presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and liver inflammation, not the symptoms described. Norovirus infection commonly causes gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea, not the symptoms presented by the client.

3. A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse closely monitor during acute management of this patient?

• A. Onset of pulmonary edema
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Parkinson's disease type symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the onset of pulmonary edema. In cases of aspirin overdose, metabolic acidosis is a common consequence that can lead to the development of pulmonary edema. Early signs of aspirin poisoning include symptoms like tinnitus, hyperventilation, vomiting, dehydration, and fever. Late signs may manifest as drowsiness, bizarre behavior, unsteady walking, and coma. Aspirin poisoning can cause abnormal breathing that is typically rapid and deep. Pulmonary edema may occur due to increased capillary permeability in the lungs, leading to the leakage of proteins and fluid transudation in renal and pulmonary tissues. Changes in renal tubule permeability can also affect colloid osmotic pressure, potentially contributing to pulmonary edema. Monitoring pulmonary edema is crucial in managing aspirin overdose cases to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because metabolic alkalosis, respiratory alkalosis, and Parkinson's disease type symptoms are not typically associated with aspirin overdose and are not primary concerns in its acute management.

4. The client is seven (7) days post total hip replacement. Which statement by the client requires the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. I have bad muscle spasms in my lower leg of the affected extremity.
• B. I just can't 'catch my breath' over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger.
• C. I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours.
• D. It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: While all statements by the client require attention, the most critical one that demands immediate action is option B. Clients who have undergone hip or knee surgery are at an increased risk of postoperative pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are hallmark signs of this condition. Without appropriate prophylaxis such as anticoagulant therapy, deep vein thrombosis (DVT) can develop within 7 to 14 days after surgery, potentially leading to pulmonary embolism. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize signs of DVT, which include pain, tenderness, skin discoloration, swelling, or tightness in the affected leg. Signs of pulmonary embolism include sudden onset dyspnea, tachycardia, confusion, and pleuritic chest pain. Option B indicates a potentially life-threatening situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications.

5. A patient asks a nurse administering blood how long red blood cells live in the body. What is the correct response?

• A. The life span of RBC is 45 days
• B. The life span of RBC is 60 days
• C. The life span of RBC is 90 days
• D. The life span of RBC is 120 days

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that red blood cells have a lifespan of 120 days in the body. This allows for efficient oxygen transport throughout the circulatory system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lifespan of red blood cells is actually 120 days. Understanding the lifespan of red blood cells is crucial in assessing various conditions related to blood cell production and turnover.

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