NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?
- A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
- B. "I can't see on my left side."?
- C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
- D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.
2. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?
- A. The patient reports no chest pain.
- B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
- C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
- D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.
3. A 30-year-old man is being admitted to the hospital for elective knee surgery. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen
- B. Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin
- C. Bowel sounds of 20/minute in each quadrant
- D. Aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin.' Normally, the lower border of the liver is not palpable below the ribs, so this finding suggests hepatomegaly, which could indicate an underlying health issue. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen, bowel sounds of 20/minute in each quadrant, and aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area are all within normal limits for a physical assessment and do not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
4. A child is prescribed baclofen (Lioresal) via intrathecal pump to treat severe muscle spasms related to cerebral palsy. What teaching does the nurse provide the child and parents?
- A. Do not let this prescription run out.
- B. The medication may cause gingival hyperplasia.
- C. Periodic serum drug levels are needed.
- D. Watch for excessive facial hair growth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching for the child and parents when a child is prescribed baclofen via an intrathecal pump is to not let the prescription run out. Abrupt discontinuation of intrathecal baclofen can lead to severe effects like high fever, altered mental status, and rebound spasticity and muscle rigidity. It is crucial for the parents to ensure there is always an adequate supply of this medication to prevent these adverse effects. Choices B and D are incorrect because gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism are side effects associated with phenytoin (Dilantin), not baclofen. Choice C is incorrect as serum drug levels are not typically monitored for intrathecal medications.
5. What is the most common complication of chest wall injury?
- A. Hemothorax
- B. Atelectasis
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Pneumothorax
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pneumonia is the most common complication of chest wall injury. Chest wall trauma can lead to impaired lung function, making patients more susceptible to pneumonia due to reduced ability to clear secretions and impaired breathing. While hemothorax and pneumothorax are potential complications of chest wall injury, pneumonia is more commonly encountered. Atelectasis, although a common pulmonary complication, is not typically the most common complication seen in chest wall injuries.
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