NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the saline infusion immediately
- B. Notify the physician
- C. Elevate the patient's legs
- D. Continue the infusion, as these findings are normal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.
2. An 85-year-old client is diagnosed with hypernatremia due to lack of fluid intake and dehydration. The nurse knows that symptoms of hypernatremia include:
- A. Lack of thirst
- B. Pale skin
- C. Hypertension
- D. Swollen tongue
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypernatremia among elderly clients can result from dehydration and insufficient fluid intake, leading to sodium levels above 145 mEq/L. Common symptoms of hypernatremia include mental status changes, a thick or swollen tongue, excessive thirst, and flushed skin. Choice A, 'Lack of thirst,' is incorrect as hypernatremia typically presents with excessive thirst. Choice B, 'Pale skin,' is not a typical symptom of hypernatremia. Choice C, 'Hypertension,' is not a direct symptom of hypernatremia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like hypertension itself.
3. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?
- A. Weak, nonproductive cough effort
- B. Large amounts of greenish sputum
- C. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
- D. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.
4. The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old following spinal fusion for scoliosis. Which of the following interventions is appropriate in the immediate post-operative period?
- A. Raise the head of the bed at least 30 degrees
- B. Encourage ambulation within 24 hours
- C. Maintain in a flat position, logrolling as needed
- D. Encourage leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the immediate post-operative period following spinal fusion for scoliosis in a 13-year-old, it is important to maintain the patient in a flat position and perform logrolling as needed. This helps prevent injury to the surgical site and ensures proper spinal alignment. Raising the head of the bed at least 30 degrees is contraindicated as it can put strain on the surgical site. Encouraging ambulation within 24 hours may be appropriate in the recovery process but not in the immediate post-operative period. Encouraging leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours may also be part of the rehabilitation process but is not a priority in the immediate post-operative period.
5. The nurse admits a patient who has a diagnosis of an acute asthma attack. Which statement indicates that the patient may need teaching regarding medication use?
- A. I have not had any acute asthma attacks during the last year.
- B. I became short of breath an hour before coming to the hospital.
- C. I've been taking Tylenol 650 mg every 6 hours for chest-wall pain.
- D. I've been using my albuterol inhaler more frequently over the last 4 days.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'I've been using my albuterol inhaler more frequently over the last 4 days.' This statement indicates that the patient may need teaching regarding medication use because an increased need for a rapid-acting bronchodilator suggests an exacerbation of asthma. The patient should be educated on recognizing worsening symptoms and the appropriate actions to take. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to asthma exacerbation or the need for medication teaching, making them incorrect. Choice A reflects a lack of recent acute asthma attacks, while choice B describes shortness of breath unrelated to medication use. Choice C mentions Tylenol use for chest-wall pain, which is not indicative of asthma exacerbation or medication teaching needs.
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