Nursing Elites

1. While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Stop the saline infusion immediately
• B. Notify the physician
• C. Elevate the patient's legs
• D. Continue the infusion, as these findings are normal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.

2. In which order should the nurse take the following actions for an older patient with new onset confusion who is normally alert and oriented?

• A. Obtain the oxygen saturation, Check the patient's pulse rate, Notify the health care provider, Document the change in status
• B. Obtain the oxygen saturation, Check the patient's pulse rate, Document the change in status, Notify the health care provider
• C. Document the change in status, Notify the health care provider, Check the patient's pulse rate, Obtain the oxygen saturation
• D. Document the change in status, Check the patient's pulse rate, Obtain the oxygen saturation, Notify the health care provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct order of actions for the nurse in this scenario is to first obtain the oxygen saturation to assess the patient's airway and oxygenation status. Next, checking the patient's pulse rate helps in evaluating circulation. Subsequently, documenting the change in the patient's status is important for maintaining an accurate record of care. Finally, notifying the health care provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and further management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because assessing oxygen saturation should precede checking the pulse rate to address potential physiological causes of confusion. Additionally, documentation should follow patient assessment and notification of the healthcare provider for appropriate record-keeping and communication.

3. The mother of a newborn infant with hypospadias asks the nurse why circumcision cannot be performed. Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Circumcision will cause an infection.
• B. Circumcision is not performed in a newborn.
• C. Circumcision will cause difficulty with urination.
• D. Circumcision has been delayed to save tissue for surgical repair.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The reason circumcision is not performed in a newborn with hypospadias is that the dorsal foreskin tissue will be needed for the surgical repair of hypospadias. Delaying circumcision allows for the preservation of tissue that will be crucial for the corrective surgery. This surgical repair is typically done within the first year of life to minimize the psychological impact on the child. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the specific reason for delaying circumcision in this case.

4. The parents of a newborn male with hypospadias want their child circumcised. The best response by the nurse is to inform them that

• A. Circumcision is delayed so the foreskin can be used for the surgical repair
• B. This procedure is contraindicated because of the permanent defect
• C. There is no medical indication for performing a circumcision on any child
• D. The procedure should be performed as soon as the infant is stable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Circumcision is delayed so the foreskin can be used for the surgical repair. Even if mild hypospadias is suspected, circumcision is not done to save the foreskin for surgical repair if needed. Choice B is incorrect because circumcision is not contraindicated due to a permanent defect; it is delayed for potential surgical needs. Choice C is incorrect as there are situations where a circumcision may be indicated for medical or cultural reasons. Choice D is incorrect because circumcision for hypospadias-related repair is not done immediately but rather delayed to preserve the foreskin for potential reconstructive surgery.

5. The healthcare provider is managing a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour.
• B. Periodic crying and irritability.
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier.
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical finding that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding raises concerns about possible hyperkalemia, which can result from continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. The management of acute hyperkalemia involves interventions such as administering calcium to protect the heart, shifting potassium into cells, and enhancing potassium elimination from the body. The other choices do not indicate an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. Three episodes of vomiting in 1 hour can be concerning but may not be as immediately critical as the risk of hyperkalemia. Periodic crying and irritability are common in infants and may not indicate a severe complication. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier is a normal behavior in infants and does not signal a medical emergency.

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