Nursing Elites

1. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

2. Which bloodborne pathogen is the most virulent? (Choose the BEST answer.)

• A. HCV
• B. HPV
• C. HIV
• D. HBV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is HCV (Hepatitis C Virus). Hepatitis C is considered the most virulent bloodborne pathogen, being 100 times more virulent than Hepatitis B. HPV (Human Papillomavirus) is a sexually transmitted infection but is not a bloodborne pathogen. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) affects the immune system but is not as virulent as Hepatitis C in terms of bloodborne transmission. HBV (Hepatitis B Virus) is less virulent compared to HCV in the context of bloodborne transmission.

3. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?

• A. Immediately see a social worker
• B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
• C. Start prophylactic Pentamidine treatment
• D. Seek counseling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

4. Which of the following medical terms means 'surgical fixation of the stomach'?

• A. Abdominorrhaphy
• B. Gastroplasty
• C. Gastropexy
• D. Abdominorrhexis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Gastropexy,' which means 'surgical fixation of the stomach.' This procedure involves surgically fixing the stomach in place. 'Abdominorrhaphy' refers to suturing or repairing the abdomen, not related to fixing the stomach. 'Gastroplasty' is a surgical reconstruction of the abdomen, not specifically related to fixing the stomach. 'Abdominorrhexis' refers to the rupture or tearing of the abdomen, not a surgical fixation procedure.

5. A client is complaining of pain in his right hand after surgery. The IV in his hand has slowed down, and the skin around the site is reddened and cool. The client reports localized pain in the hand and fingers. What is the most likely cause of this client's pain?

• A. The client's IV is infiltrated
• B. The client is experiencing phlebitis from the last drug administered
• C. The client has a blood clot developing in the distal arteries of the wrist
• D. The client's pain is associated with myocardial ischemia and he is having a heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain, cool skin, and edema at an IV injection site indicate IV infiltration. The reddened and cool skin around the IV site, along with localized pain and a slowed IV drip rate, are classic signs of infiltration. Infiltration occurs when IV fluids or medications enter the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to potential tissue damage. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not infiltration. A blood clot in the distal arteries of the wrist would not cause these specific symptoms. Myocardial ischemia and heart attack are unrelated to the client's localized hand pain and IV issues.

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