NCLEX NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?
- A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
- B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
- C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
- D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.
Correct answer: Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.
2. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right cerebrovascular accident. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?
- A. Decrease in level of consciousness
- B. Loss of bladder control
- C. Altered sensation to stimuli
- D. Emotional lability
Correct answer: Decrease in level of consciousness
Rationale: A decrease in the level of consciousness is a critical finding that would warrant immediate attention in a client post right cerebrovascular accident. This change may indicate an increase in intracranial pressure, leading to inadequate oxygenation of the brain. It could also reveal the presence of a transient ischemic attack, which may signal an impending thrombotic cerebrovascular accident. Loss of bladder control (choice B) can be managed and monitored but does not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life. Altered sensation to stimuli (choice C) can be a concerning finding but may not require immediate attention unless it affects the client's safety. Emotional lability (choice D) may be distressing for the client but does not pose an immediate risk to their health compared to a decrease in the level of consciousness.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?
- A. Contact the physician immediately
- B. Administer a bolus of 50 cc of D20W through the IV
- C. Administer 10 units of regular insulin
- D. Give the client 6 oz. of orange juice
Correct answer: Give the client 6 oz. of orange juice
Rationale: A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.
4. An older patient is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should notify the health care provider if the patient exhibits which finding?
- A. Yellow-tinged skin
- B. Orange-colored sputum
- C. Thickening of the fingernails
- D. Difficulty hearing high-pitched voices
Correct answer: Yellow-tinged skin
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Yellow-tinged skin.' Yellow-tinged skin is indicative of noninfectious hepatitis, a toxic effect of isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide. If a patient on TB therapy develops hepatotoxicity, alternative medications will be necessary. Thickening of fingernails and difficulty hearing high-pitched voices are not typical side effects of the medications used in standard TB therapy. Presbycusis, age-related hearing loss, is common in older adults and not a cause for immediate concern. Orange-colored sputum is an expected side effect of rifampin and does not warrant immediate notification to the healthcare provider.
5. A patient suffering from hyperglycemia would be experiencing:
- A. Low blood sugar
- B. High blood sugar
- C. Normal blood sugar
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: High blood sugar
Rationale: Hyperglycemia is a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels. In this state, there is an excess of glucose in the bloodstream. Patients with hyperglycemia are often diagnosed with diabetes. The term 'hyperglycemia' specifically refers to elevated blood sugar levels. Therefore, the correct answer is 'High blood sugar.' Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperglycemia indicates elevated blood sugar levels and not low or normal levels.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions and answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX Coverage
- 90 days access @ $69.99