Nursing Elites

1. What are Korotkoff sounds?

• A. Sounds noted during diastole.
• B. The result of the vibration of blood against artery walls while blood pressure readings are being taken.
• C. Sounds only noted by skilled cardiologists.
• D. Distinct sounds which are classified into 6 phases.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Korotkoff sounds are the sounds that occur when blood flows in an artery that has been temporarily compressed during a blood pressure measurement. These sounds result from the vibration of blood against the artery walls as the pressure cuff is released. There are five distinct phases of Korotkoff sounds, which healthcare providers are trained to identify during blood pressure assessment. The correct answer, choice B, accurately describes the nature of Korotkoff sounds and how they are generated. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Korotkoff sounds are not specific to diastole, not limited to skilled cardiologists, and categorized into five phases, not six.

2. The client is being discharged to a long-term care (LTC) facility. The nurse is preparing a progress note to communicate to the LTC staff the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not. To do this effectively, the nurse should:

• A. Formulate post-discharge nursing diagnoses
• B. Draw conclusion about resolution of current client problems
• C. Assess the client for baseline data to be used at the LTC facility
• D. Plan the care that is needed in the LTC facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To effectively communicate the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not to the LTC staff, the nurse should draw conclusions about the resolution of the current client problems. Terminal evaluation is performed to determine the client's condition at discharge, focusing on which goals were achieved and which were not. Formulating post-discharge nursing diagnoses (option A) is not the most appropriate action in this scenario as it focuses on identifying potential problems after discharge rather than evaluating achieved goals. Assessing the client for baseline data (option C) is not necessary at this point as the focus is on evaluating outcomes rather than collecting baseline data. Planning the care needed in the LTC facility (option D) is premature as this should be done on admission to the LTC facility and not during the discharge process.

3. A healthcare professional is employed at a district health department and must spend several hours each day sitting at a desk. Which principle of ergonomics will most likely help them to reduce the risk of injury or pain in this situation?

• A. Adjust the chair height to keep the legs bent at the hips at a 90-degree angle
• B. Maintain the position of the computer monitor just below eye level
• C. Stand up and take a walk or stretch every 4 hours
• D. Rest wrists on the edge of the desk while typing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When sitting for prolonged periods, it is important to adjust the height of the chair so that the legs are bent at the hips at a 90-degree angle. This position helps to reduce pressure on the back, legs, and feet, promoting better posture and reducing muscle fatigue. Standing up and moving around at least once every hour is crucial to support circulation and prevent stiffness. Maintaining the position of the computer monitor just below eye level helps reduce strain on the neck and eyes. Resting wrists on the edge of the desk while typing can lead to wrist strain and discomfort, so it is not an ergonomic recommendation for prolonged desk work.

4. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

• A. 100 per minute
• B. 60 per minute
• C. As quickly as possible
• D. 200 per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

5. What would be an appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write based on the client's ability to state only two signs of impaired circulation out of three as expected?

• A. Client understands the signs of impaired circulation
• B. Goal met: Client cited numbness and tingling as a sign of impaired circulation
• C. Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation
• D. Goal not met: Client unable to describe signs of impaired circulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write would be 'Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation.' In this scenario, the client has only identified two out of the three signs of impaired circulation specified in the desired outcome. Therefore, the goal has not been fully achieved. It is essential in nursing practice to assess and document client progress accurately. While the client has shown some understanding by correctly identifying numbness and tingling as signs of impaired circulation, the inability to state the third sign indicates an incomplete achievement of the goal. This evaluation helps guide further interventions or educational strategies to help the client meet the desired outcome in the care plan.

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