NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. What are Korotkoff sounds?
- A. Sounds noted during diastole.
- B. The result of the vibration of blood against artery walls while blood pressure readings are being taken.
- C. Sounds only noted by skilled cardiologists.
- D. Distinct sounds which are classified into 6 phases.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Korotkoff sounds are the sounds that occur when blood flows in an artery that has been temporarily compressed during a blood pressure measurement. These sounds result from the vibration of blood against the artery walls as the pressure cuff is released. There are five distinct phases of Korotkoff sounds, which healthcare providers are trained to identify during blood pressure assessment. The correct answer, choice B, accurately describes the nature of Korotkoff sounds and how they are generated. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Korotkoff sounds are not specific to diastole, not limited to skilled cardiologists, and categorized into five phases, not six.
2. Which playroom activities should the nurse organize for a small group of 7-year-old hospitalized children?
- A. Sports and games with rules.
- B. Finger paints and water play.
- C. "Dress-up"? clothes and props.
- D. Chess and television programs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For 7-year-old children, play serves an important role in developing cooperation, logical reasoning, and social skills. Organizing sports and games with rules is beneficial as it helps children understand the importance of rules, promotes teamwork, and fosters social interactions. Finger paints and water play, while fun, may not target the specific developmental needs of this age group. Similarly, 'Dress-up' clothes and props can encourage imaginative play but may not necessarily promote cooperation and logical reasoning. Chess and television programs are more suited for older children and may not engage 7-year-olds as effectively in developing the desired skills.
3. A physician asks you to place the patient with his dorsal side facing the exam table. Which of the following accurately describes how the patient is positioned?
- A. The patient is lying prone.
- B. The patient is lying supine.
- C. The patient is lying in the recovery position.
- D. The patient is lying on his stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When the physician asks for the patient to be placed with their dorsal side facing the exam table, it means the patient should be lying on their back. This position is known as the supine position, where the patient's back is on the table, facing up towards the ceiling. Choice A, 'The patient is lying prone,' is incorrect as the prone position is when the patient is lying face down. Choice C, 'The patient is lying in the recovery position,' is incorrect as the recovery position is a lateral position typically used in first aid. Choice D, 'The patient is lying on his stomach,' is incorrect as it describes the prone position, not the supine position as required in this scenario.
4. Following hospitalization for congestive heart failure, a client is discharged. The nurse teaching the family suggests they encourage the client to rest frequently in which of the following positions?
- A. High Fowler's
- B. Supine
- C. Left lateral
- D. Low Fowler's
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is High Fowler's. Sitting in a chair or resting in a bed in the high Fowler's position helps decrease the cardiac workload and facilitates breathing in clients with congestive heart failure. This position helps reduce venous return and increases lung expansion, improving oxygenation. The supine position (choice B) may lead to increased pressure on the heart and lungs, making it less suitable for these clients. The left lateral position (choice C) is not as effective as High Fowler's in reducing cardiac workload and improving breathing. Low Fowler's position (choice D) does not provide the same benefits as the High Fowler's position for clients with congestive heart failure.
5. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?
- A. 100 per minute
- B. 60 per minute
- C. As quickly as possible
- D. 200 per minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.
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