NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Prep
1. Which of the following is classified as a prerenal condition that affects urinary elimination?
- A. Nephrotoxic medications
- B. Pericardial tamponade
- C. Neurogenic bladder
- D. Polycystic kidney disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A prerenal condition is one that causes reduced urinary elimination by affecting the blood flow to the kidneys. Pericardial tamponade is a condition that impacts the heart's ability to pump sufficient blood, leading to decreased blood flow to vital organs such as the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow to the kidneys can result in decreased urine production. The other choices, such as nephrotoxic medications, neurogenic bladder, and polycystic kidney disease, do not primarily affect the blood flow to the kidneys and are not classified as prerenal conditions that impact urinary elimination.
2. Patients exhibiting signs of cyanosis will:
- A. show signs of hyperoxia.
- B. have increased O2 saturation.
- C. have blood levels of CO2 higher than O2 levels.
- D. None of the above.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes resulting from low blood oxygen levels. When a patient exhibits cyanosis, it indicates that their blood is poorly oxygenated, leading to a higher concentration of CO2 compared to oxygen. Options A and B are incorrect as cyanosis is associated with low oxygen levels, not hyperoxia or increased O2 saturation. Therefore, the correct answer is that patients exhibiting cyanosis will have blood levels of CO2 higher than O2 levels.
3. You are taking care of 5 patients today. One of your patients wants water; another needs help walking to the bathroom; another just stated that they have chest pain; and another is crying because his daughter did not visit him today. Which patient care problem must you deal with first?
- A. The water
- B. Help to the bathroom
- C. The chest pain
- D. The crying person
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The chest pain must be addressed immediately as it could indicate a serious condition like a heart attack. Treating chest pain is a top priority in healthcare settings due to the potential life-threatening nature of the symptom. Providing immediate attention to chest pain ensures prompt assessment, diagnosis, and intervention, which are crucial for patient safety and well-being. Addressing the other needs, such as providing water, assisting with bathroom needs, or emotional support, can follow once the urgent issue of chest pain has been managed. While the other patient concerns are important, the critical nature of chest pain requires immediate action to rule out severe cardiac events and provide appropriate care.
4. A 30-year-old woman has recently moved to the United States with her husband. They are living with the woman's sister until they can get a home of their own. When company arrives to visit the woman's sister, the woman feels suddenly shy and retreats to the back bedroom to hide until the company leaves. She explains that her reaction to guests is simply because she does not know how to speak "perfect English."? What is this woman likely experiencing?
- A. Culture shock
- B. Cultural taboos
- C. Cultural unfamiliarity
- D. Culture disorientation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The woman in the scenario is likely experiencing culture shock. Culture shock is a term used to describe the state of disorientation or inability to respond to the behavior of a different cultural group due to sudden strangeness, unfamiliarity, and incompatibility with the individual's perceptions and expectations. In this case, the woman's feelings of shyness and retreating due to not feeling confident in speaking 'perfect English' align with symptoms of culture shock. The other choices are incorrect: Cultural taboos refer to behaviors or actions that are prohibited within a particular culture; cultural unfamiliarity suggests a lack of knowledge about a specific culture, which is not the case here; and culture disorientation is not a commonly used term in cultural psychology, making it an incorrect option.
5. The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old male patient. Which assessment finding would be considered normal?
- A. Decrease in body weight from his younger years
- B. Decrease in deposits of fat in the cheeks and forearms
- C. Presence of kyphosis and flexion in bilateral knees and hips
- D. Change in overall body proportion, including a longer trunk and shorter extremities
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In an 80-year-old male patient, the presence of kyphosis (rounded upper back) and flexion in bilateral knees and hips are considered normal age-related changes. These postural changes are commonly seen in older adults due to structural changes in the spine and joints. Option A is incorrect as aging individuals typically experience a decrease in body weight, not an increase. Option B is also incorrect as there is usually a decrease in subcutaneous fat from the face and periphery, rather than an increase in fat deposits in specific areas. Option D is incorrect because the change in overall body proportion with aging usually involves a shorter trunk and relatively longer extremities, not the other way around. This is because long bones do not shorten with age, leading to this characteristic change in body proportions.
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