Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is classified as a prerenal condition that affects urinary elimination?

• A. Nephrotoxic medications
• B. Pericardial tamponade
• C. Neurogenic bladder
• D. Polycystic kidney disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A prerenal condition is one that causes reduced urinary elimination by affecting the blood flow to the kidneys. Pericardial tamponade is a condition that impacts the heart's ability to pump sufficient blood, leading to decreased blood flow to vital organs such as the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow to the kidneys can result in decreased urine production. The other choices, such as nephrotoxic medications, neurogenic bladder, and polycystic kidney disease, do not primarily affect the blood flow to the kidneys and are not classified as prerenal conditions that impact urinary elimination.

2. When performing a physical assessment, what technique should the nurse always perform first?

• A. Palpation
• B. Inspection
• C. Percussion
• D. Auscultation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a physical assessment, the nurse should always begin with inspection. The sequence of techniques for physical examination is inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. These skills are performed in a specific order, except for the abdominal assessment where auscultation precedes palpation and percussion. Inspection allows the nurse to observe and gather initial information without direct contact. It is a crucial step that provides valuable insights before proceeding to palpation, percussion, and auscultation. Therefore, choice B, 'Inspection,' is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they should follow inspection in the sequence of a comprehensive physical assessment.

3. A client is taking a walk down the hallway when she suddenly realizes that she needs to use the restroom. Although she tries to make it to the bathroom on time, she is incontinent of urine before reaching the toilet. What type of incontinence does this situation represent?

• A. Relex incontinence
• B. Urge incontinence
• C. Total incontinence
• D. Functional incontinence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Functional incontinence occurs when a client develops an urge to void but may not be able to reach the toilet in time. In this scenario, the client had the urge to use the restroom but was unable to make it in time, leading to incontinence. Functional incontinence may be related to conditions that cause the client to forget bladder sensation until the last minute, such as cognitive changes, or the client may have mobility problems that prevent her from reaching the bathroom in time. Choice A, Reflex incontinence, is incorrect as reflex incontinence is characterized by the involuntary loss of urine due to hyperreflexia of the detrusor muscle. Choice B, Urge incontinence, is not the correct answer as urge incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong desire to void. Choice C, Total incontinence, is also incorrect as it refers to the continuous and unpredictable loss of urine, not specifically related to the inability to reach the toilet in time.

4. A 51-year-old woman had an incisional cholecystectomy 6 hours ago. The nurse will place the highest priority on assisting the patient to

• A. choose low-fat foods from the menu
• B. perform leg exercises hourly while awake
• C. ambulate the evening of the operative day
• D. turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Postoperative nursing care after a cholecystectomy focuses on preventing respiratory complications due to the surgical incision being high in the abdomen, which impairs coughing and deep breathing. Turning, coughing, and deep breathing every 2 hours help prevent respiratory complications, such as pneumonia. While choices A, B, and C are also important aspects of postoperative care, they are not as high a priority as ensuring proper ventilation and respiratory function in the immediate postoperative period.

5. When performing an EKG, the patient starts to laugh out of feelings of anxiety. What would you expect the EKG to show? (Choose the BEST answer.)

• A. Increased pulse rate, normal EKG
• B. Decreased pulse rate, abnormal EKG
• C. Tachycardia, poor EKG graph
• D. Bradycardia, poor EKG graph

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient laughs due to anxiety during an EKG, it is likely to cause tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rate. This increased heart rate can lead to poor EKG graph quality as the electrical signals from large moving muscles can interfere with data collection from the chest leads. Therefore, in this scenario, the EKG is expected to show tachycardia with poor graph quality. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a patient laughing out of anxiety is more likely to result in an increased pulse rate (tachycardia) rather than a decreased pulse rate (bradycardia) or a normal EKG.

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