Nursing Elites

1. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled
• B. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath
• C. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes
• D. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2 F (37.8 C)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and action such as oxygen administration to maintain adequate oxygenation. The other patients should also be assessed as soon as possible, but they do not present with an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention like the patient experiencing sudden shortness of breath.

2. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?

• A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
• B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
• C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
• D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.

3. The nurse is assessing children in a pediatric clinic. Which statement is true regarding the measurement of blood pressure in children?

• A. Blood pressure guidelines for children are based on age.
• B. Phase II Korotkoff sounds are the best indicator of systolic blood pressure in children.
• C. Using a Doppler device is recommended for accurate blood pressure measurements until adolescence.
• D. The disappearance of phase V Korotkoff sounds can be used for the diastolic reading in children.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The disappearance of phase V Korotkoff sounds can be used for the diastolic reading in children, as well as in adults. Blood pressure guidelines for children are based on more than just age, but also sex and height. Phase I Korotkoff, not Phase II, is the best indicator of systolic blood pressure. The true statement regarding the measurement of blood pressure in children is that the disappearance of phase V Korotkoff sounds can be used for the diastolic reading in children, as well as in adults.

4. Which brain structure serves as the heat-regulating center?

• A. Hypothalamus
• B. Pituitary Gland
• C. Pons
• D. Medulla Oblongata

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating body temperature, ensuring it stays within a narrow range. Moreover, the hypothalamus controls various essential bodily functions, such as hunger, thirst, and circadian rhythms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Pituitary Gland primarily produces and releases hormones, the Pons is involved in functions like sleep, respiration, and bladder control, and the Medulla Oblongata controls vital functions like breathing and heart rate, but not body temperature regulation.

5. When assessing a patient's pulse, which of the following characteristics would the nurse also notice?

• A. Force
• B. Pallor
• C. Capillary refill time
• D. Timing in the cardiac cycle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient's pulse, the nurse should observe characteristics such as rate, rhythm, and force. Force refers to the strength or amplitude of the pulse, which provides important information about cardiac output. Pallor is the paleness of the skin and is not directly related to pulse assessment. Capillary refill time is used to assess peripheral perfusion and is not specifically part of pulse assessment. Timing in the cardiac cycle is a broader concept and not a characteristic directly assessed during a pulse examination. Therefore, choice A, 'Force,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the standard parameters evaluated during pulse assessment.

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