mr roberts a 68 year old man notices a gradual loss of hearing this sensory change is called mr roberts a 68 year old man notices a gradual loss of hearing this sensory change is called
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1. In a 68-year-old man, a gradual loss of hearing is known as _____________.

Correct answer: A: presbycusis

Rationale: The correct answer is 'presbycusis.' Presbycusis is the age-related gradual loss of hearing ability, commonly seen in the elderly population. Xerostomia refers to dry mouth, myopia is nearsightedness, and presbyopia is the age-related loss of the eye's ability to focus on close objects. Given Mr. Roberts' age and symptom of gradual hearing loss, presbycusis is the most likely diagnosis. Xerostomia, myopia, and presbyopia do not match the sensory change described in the question, making them incorrect choices.

2. A 70-year-old man has a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg in a lying position, 130/80 mm Hg in a sitting position, and 100/60 mm Hg in a standing position. How should the nurse evaluate these findings?

Correct answer: The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.' Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic pressure of ³20 mm Hg or ³10 mm Hg drop in diastolic pressure that occurs with a quick change to a standing position. This condition is common in individuals on prolonged bed rest, older adults, those with hypovolemia, or taking specific medications. The blood pressure readings provided in the question (150/90 mm Hg lying, 130/80 mm Hg sitting, and 100/60 mm Hg standing) demonstrate a significant change in blood pressure with position changes, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the readings do not indicate a normal response or blood pressure within normal limits for the patient’s age; rather, they suggest the presence of orthostatic hypotension.

3. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is

Correct answer: Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow.

Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that involves compressing plaque against the wall of a diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is a minimally invasive procedure performed during a cardiac catheterization to open blockages in the coronary arteries. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery refers to procedures like coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), not PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator is a different intervention used for managing cardiac arrhythmias, not for improving coronary blood flow. A non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart would typically refer to procedures like a cardiac CT scan or an MRI, not PTCA.

4. The clinic nurse teaches a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking about lung disease. Which information will be most important for the nurse to include?

Correct answer: Options for smoking cessation

Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to provide to a patient with a significant smoking history is options for smoking cessation. Smoking is the primary cause of lung cancer, making smoking cessation essential in reducing the risk of developing the disease. Annual sputum cytology testing is not a standard screening test for lung cancer; instead, CT scanning is being explored for this purpose. Erlotinib therapy is used in lung cancer treatment but not for preventing tumor risk in individuals without cancer. CT screening for lung cancer is still under investigation and is not primarily aimed at prevention but rather early detection in high-risk individuals.

5. The parents of a newborn have been told that their child was born with bladder exstrophy, and the parents ask the nurse about this condition. Which explanation, given by the parents, indicates understanding of this condition?

Correct answer: ''It's an extrusion of the urinary bladder to the outside of the body through a defect in the lower abdominal wall.''

Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital anomaly characterized by the extrusion of the urinary bladder to the outside of the body through a defect in the lower abdominal wall. The cause of bladder exstrophy is not precisely known, but it is believed to be due to a developmental abnormality during embryogenesis. The condition is more common in male newborns. Choice A is incorrect as bladder exstrophy is not a hereditary disorder that occurs in every other generation. Choice B is incorrect as bladder exstrophy is not caused by medications taken by the mother during pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the condition inaccurately; it is not just an abnormal location of the bladder in the pelvic cavity, but rather an extrusion of the bladder outside the body through a defect in the lower abdominal wall.

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