the nurse is preparing to examine a 6 year old child which action is most appropriate

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Predictor Exam

1. The nurse is preparing to examine a 6-year-old child. Which action is most appropriate?

A. The child is asked to undress from the waist up.
B. The head is examined before the thorax, abdomen, and genitalia.
C. The nurse should keep in mind that a child at this age will have a sense of modesty.
D. Talking about the equipment being used is avoided to prevent increasing the child's anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When examining a 6-year-old child, it is important to consider their sense of modesty. The child should undress themselves, leaving underpants on and using a gown or drape to maintain privacy. Additionally, a school-age child like a 6-year-old is curious about how equipment works, so it is beneficial to explain the purpose and function of the tools being used. The examination sequence should typically progress from the child's head to the toes to ensure a thorough assessment. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the appropriate approach to examining a 6-year-old child.

2. A client is receiving high-dose brachytherapy as a form of cancer treatment. What type of teaching must the nurse include when educating this client about safety?

A. The client must remain in isolation under airborne precautions
B. The client should stay in a private room at the hospital
C. The client may need to limit visits from friends and family
D. Both B and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client undergoing high-dose brachytherapy has a radiation implant placed for cancer treatment. To ensure safety, the client should be in a private hospital room to prevent radiation exposure to others. Limiting visits from friends and family is necessary to prevent overexposure. Option A is incorrect as isolation under airborne precautions is not required for brachytherapy. Option B and C are the correct choices as they focus on minimizing radiation exposure to others, ensuring safety during treatment.

3. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

A. 100 per minute
B. 60 per minute
C. As quickly as possible
D. 200 per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

4. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

5. Intermittent fevers are:

A. fevers which come and go.
B. fevers which rise and fall but are always considered above the patient's average temperature.
C. fevers which fluctuate more than three degrees and never return to normal.
D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intermittent fevers are characterized by periods of fever followed by periods of normal body temperature. They alternate between being febrile and afebrile. Continuous fevers show minimal fluctuations over a 24-hour period, while remittent fevers fluctuate significantly but do return to normal body temperature. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes intermittent fevers. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not fully capture the defining characteristic of intermittent fevers, which involve cyclical episodes of fever and normal temperature. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific definition for intermittent fevers.