Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to examine a 6-year-old child. Which action is most appropriate?

• A. The child is asked to undress from the waist up.
• B. The head is examined before the thorax, abdomen, and genitalia.
• C. The nurse should keep in mind that a child at this age will have a sense of modesty.
• D. Talking about the equipment being used is avoided to prevent increasing the child's anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When examining a 6-year-old child, it is important to consider their sense of modesty. The child should undress themselves, leaving underpants on and using a gown or drape to maintain privacy. Additionally, a school-age child like a 6-year-old is curious about how equipment works, so it is beneficial to explain the purpose and function of the tools being used. The examination sequence should typically progress from the child's head to the toes to ensure a thorough assessment. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the appropriate approach to examining a 6-year-old child.

2. A patient works with a nurse to establish outcomes. The nurse believes that one outcome suggested by the patient is not in the patient's best interest. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Remain silent.
• B. Educate the patient that the outcome is not realistic.
• C. Explore with the patient possible consequences of the outcome.
• D. Formulate an appropriate outcome without the patient's input.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should collaborate with the patient rather than impose personal opinions. While the nurse should respect the patient's autonomy, they also have a duty to provide guidance. By exploring possible consequences of the suggested outcome with the patient, the nurse can facilitate a discussion that helps the patient make an informed decision. This approach respects the patient's input while ensuring their well-being. Remaining silent (Choice A) may not address the issue, educating the patient unilaterally (Choice B) may be perceived as dismissive, and formulating an outcome without patient input (Choice D) disregards the patient's autonomy and preferences.

3. An adult's blood pressure reads 40/20. You place the patient in a Trendelenberg position before rechecking the blood pressure. What actions will you take to position the patient correctly?

• A. lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed
• B. raise the head of the bed up to about 60 to 75 degrees
• C. raise the head of the bed up to about 75 to 90 degrees
• D. raise the siderails and place the bed in the high position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a Trendelenberg position, used for low blood pressure, the correct action is to lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed. This positioning facilitates the return of blood to the heart and helps increase blood pressure. Option B, raising the head of the bed to 60 to 75 degrees, is incorrect as it is not the Trendelenberg position. Option C, raising the head of the bed to 75 to 90 degrees, is incorrect as it does not align with the Trendelenberg position. Option D, raising the siderails and placing the bed in the high position, is incorrect as it does not address the specific positioning required for the Trendelenberg position.

4. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

5. What is the purpose of MSDS sheets?

• A. Contain the ordering information for each piece of equipment in the office.
• B. Are required by OSHA to be accessible to all employees of the office.
• C. Can be used to treat patients who have been injured in equipment accidents.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: MSDS sheets, also known as Materials Safety Data Sheets, are essential documents that provide detailed information about chemicals used in the workplace. They are required by OSHA to be easily accessible to all employees to ensure they have the necessary information to handle chemicals safely. MSDS sheets do not contain ordering information for equipment in the office (Choice A) or serve as a treatment guide for injured patients (Choice C). Therefore, the correct answer is that MSDS sheets are required by OSHA to be accessible to all employees of the office.

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