Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to examine a 6-year-old child. Which action is most appropriate?

• A. The child is asked to undress from the waist up.
• B. The head is examined before the thorax, abdomen, and genitalia.
• C. The nurse should keep in mind that a child at this age will have a sense of modesty.
• D. Talking about the equipment being used is avoided to prevent increasing the child's anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When examining a 6-year-old child, it is important to consider their sense of modesty. The child should undress themselves, leaving underpants on and using a gown or drape to maintain privacy. Additionally, a school-age child like a 6-year-old is curious about how equipment works, so it is beneficial to explain the purpose and function of the tools being used. The examination sequence should typically progress from the child's head to the toes to ensure a thorough assessment. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the appropriate approach to examining a 6-year-old child.

2. Where is the pulse point located on the top of the foot?

• A. the dorsalis pedis
• B. This is the pulse point checked in patients with peripheral vascular problems.
• C. This pulse point may be absent in some patients due to a congenital anomaly.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The pulse point located on the top of the foot is known as the dorsalis pedis pulse point. It is situated on the arch of the foot, slightly lateral to the midline. This pulse point is commonly examined in patients with peripheral vascular problems to assess blood flow adequacy. Additionally, some individuals may not have this pulse point due to a congenital anomaly. Therefore, all the given statements are correct in relation to the dorsalis pedis pulse point, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all individually valid characteristics of the dorsalis pedis pulse point, hence selecting 'All of the above' as the correct answer is appropriate.

3. You have measured the urinary output of your resident at the end of your 8-hour shift. The output is 25 ounces. What should you do next?

• A. Convert the number of ounces into cc.
• B. Convert the number of ounces into cm.
• C. Immediately report this poor output to the nurse.
• D. Know that 25 ounces of urine is too much in 8 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: You should convert the number of ounces into cc because cc is the unit of measurement used to record intake and output accurately. This urinary output falls within normal limits, so there is no need to report it immediately to the nurse. It is essential to report urinary outputs of less than 30 cc per hour to detect potential issues early. Converting ounces into centimeters (cm) is not appropriate in this context as cm is a unit of length, not volume. Knowing that 25 ounces of urine is too much in 8 hours is inaccurate as it depends on various factors like fluid intake and individual differences.

4. When preparing to perform a physical examination on an infant, what should the nurse do?

• A. Have the parent remove all clothing except the diaper.
• B. Instruct the parent not to feed the infant immediately before the examination.
• C. Allow the infant to suck on a pacifier during abdominal auscultation.
• D. Ensure the parent is present during the examination.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For performing a physical examination on an infant, it is important to have the parent remove all clothing except the diaper to allow for a thorough examination while ensuring the infant remains comfortable. It is recommended not to feed the infant immediately before the examination but rather 1 to 2 hours after feeding when the baby is neither too drowsy nor too hungry. While a pacifier may be used during invasive assessments or if the infant is crying, it is not typically necessary during abdominal auscultation. Having the parent present during the examination is important for the infant's security and for the parent to understand the process; however, the clothing should still be removed except for the diaper to facilitate a comprehensive assessment.

5. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

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