NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?
- A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
- B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
- C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
- D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.
2. Which of the following conditions may cause an increased respiratory rate?
- A. Stooped posture
- B. Narcotic analgesics
- C. Injury to the brain stem
- D. Anemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Anemia can lead to an increased respiratory rate. In anemia, there are decreased levels of hemoglobin in red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues. To compensate for the reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, the body increases the respiratory rate to bring in more oxygen. Stooped posture (Choice A) is not directly related to an increased respiratory rate. Narcotic analgesics (Choice B) are more likely to cause a decreased respiratory rate due to their central nervous system depressant effects. Injury to the brain stem (Choice C) can affect respiratory function but may not necessarily lead to an increased respiratory rate.
3. Mrs. F has been diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following complications is Mrs. F at highest risk of developing?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypermagnesemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The parathyroid glands regulate calcium, vitamin D, and phosphorus in the body. Hyperparathyroidism leads to excessive production of parathyroid hormone, causing the release of calcium from bones into the bloodstream, resulting in elevated blood calcium levels, known as hypercalcemia. This puts individuals at risk of developing complications such as kidney stones, bone pain, osteoporosis, and neuropsychiatric symptoms. The other options, hyponatremia, hypocalcemia, and hypermagnesemia, are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism. Hyponatremia is low sodium levels in the blood, hypocalcemia is low calcium levels, and hypermagnesemia is high magnesium levels, which are not typically seen in hyperparathyroidism.
4. A physician has written an order for '2.0 mg MS q 2-4 hr prn pain.' What is the nurse's appropriate response to this order?
- A. Give 2 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
- B. Give 20 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
- C. Contact the pharmacy to clarify the order
- D. Contact the physician to rewrite the order
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The physician's order contains several errors that could lead to potential harm to the client if not addressed. The use of '2.0' involves a trailing decimal point, which may lead to confusion regarding the intended dose of the drug. Additionally, the abbreviation 'MS' is considered a Do Not Use abbreviation by the Joint Commission, as it could refer to morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate, leading to medication errors. While the order indicates the drug should be used for pain, the nurse should contact the physician to clarify the exact dose and specific drug to be administered, ensuring safe and accurate medication administration. Therefore, the correct response is to contact the physician to rewrite the order.
5. The discharge planning team is discussing plans for the dismissal of a 16-year-old admitted for complications associated with asthma. The client's mother has not participated in any of the discharge planning processes but has stated that she wants to be involved. Which of the following reasons might prohibit this mother from participating in discharge planning?
- A. The client is an emancipated minor
- B. The mother has to work and is unavailable
- C. The client has a job and a driver's license
- D. The mother does not speak English
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is that the client is an emancipated minor. Emancipated minors, even if they are under the age of 18, have the legal right to make decisions about their own healthcare and planning, which may include not wanting their parent involved in the discharge planning process. This status grants them independence from parental involvement in certain situations. The other choices are incorrect because the mother's work schedule, the client's job and possession of a driver's license, and the mother's language proficiency do not inherently prevent her from participating in the discharge planning process, unlike the legal status of being an emancipated minor.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access