Nursing Elites

1. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?

• A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
• B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
• C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
• D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.

2. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

• A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
• B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
• C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
• D. Dopamine system stabilizers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

3. In a clinic in a primarily African American community, a higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension is noted in patients. To correct this health disparity, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Initiate a regular home-visit program by clinic nurses.
• B. Schedule teaching sessions about low-salt diets at community events.
• C. Assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic.
• D. Obtain low-cost antihypertensive drugs using government grant funding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To address the higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension in the primarily African American community, the nurse should first assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic. Understanding the community's perspective can provide valuable insights into the reasons behind the health disparity. Initiating a regular home-visit program or scheduling teaching sessions about low-salt diets are important interventions but should come after gathering information on community perceptions. Obtaining low-cost antihypertensive drugs is not the initial priority; understanding community perspectives is crucial for developing effective interventions.

4. While assessing a one-month-old infant, which of the findings does not warrant further investigation by the nurse?

• A. Abdominal respirations
• B. Inspiratory grunt
• C. Nasal flaring
• D. Cyanosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abdominal respirations in infants are considered normal due to the underdeveloped intercostal muscles. Infants rely more on their abdominal muscles to facilitate breathing since their intercostal muscles are not fully matured. Therefore, abdominal respirations do not typically require further investigation. Inspiratory grunt, nasal flaring, and cyanosis are findings that warrant additional assessment as they can indicate potential respiratory distress or other underlying health issues in infants. Inspiratory grunt may suggest respiratory distress, nasal flaring can be a sign of increased work of breathing, and cyanosis indicates poor oxygenation, all of which require prompt evaluation and intervention to ensure the infant's well-being.

5. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

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