Nursing Elites

1. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?

• A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
• B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
• C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
• D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.

2. Mr. W has orders for a physical therapy consult. The nurse contacts the appropriate department but 12 hours later, no one has come to see the client. Which is the most appropriate action of the nurse?

• A. Call the supervisor and file a complaint against the physical therapy department
• B. Contact the physician to notify him that the orders were not carried out
• C. Assess the client's activity level by assisting with ambulation using a gait belt
• D. Contact the physical therapy department again and repeat the order

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to contact the physical therapy department again and repeat the order. It is crucial to ensure that the client receives the necessary care as prescribed. Following up with the department reinforces the importance of the order and increases the likelihood of prompt action. Option A is incorrect because escalating the situation to filing a complaint should be a last resort after all other communication attempts have failed. Option B is not the best course of action as the first step should be to ensure proper communication within the healthcare team. Option C is not the priority in this scenario, as the immediate concern is to address the delay in the physical therapy consult.

3. What ethical principle has led to the need for informed consent?

• A. Autonomy
• B. Justice
• C. Fidelity
• D. Beneficence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomy is the ethical principle that emphasizes an individual's right to make their own decisions if they are mentally competent. Informed consent is a direct result of this principle, as it ensures that patients are fully informed before agreeing to any medical intervention. Autonomy is crucial in healthcare as it respects patients' rights and promotes self-determination. Justice, fidelity, and beneficence are important ethical principles in healthcare, but they do not directly lead to the need for informed consent. Justice focuses on fairness and equal treatment, fidelity on trustworthiness and loyalty, and beneficence on doing good for the patient's benefit.

4. What information should be collected when assessing the health status of a community?

• A. Air pollution levels
• B. Number of health food stores
• C. Most common causes of death
• D. Education level of the individuals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing the health status of a community, it is crucial to gather data on various health measures such as the most common causes of death. This information helps in understanding the prevalent health issues within the community. Factors like air pollution levels, the number of health food stores, and the education level of individuals are important community aspects but do not directly reflect the health status of the community. Therefore, the correct answer is to collect data on the most common causes of death as it provides insights into the major health concerns affecting the community.

5. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
• B. Give the client Cogentin
• C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
• D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.

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