NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?
- A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
- B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
- C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
- D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.
2. At a community health fair, the blood pressure of a 62-year-old client is 160/96 mmHg. The client states, "My blood pressure is usually much lower."? The nurse should tell the client to:
- A. Go get a blood pressure check within the next 15 minutes
- B. Check blood pressure again in two (2) months
- C. See the healthcare provider immediately
- D. Visit the healthcare provider within one (1) week for a BP check
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The blood pressure reading of 160/96 mmHg is moderately high, indicating hypertension. Given that the client mentions their blood pressure is usually lower, there is concern for acute complications like a stroke. Therefore, an immediate reassessment of the blood pressure within the next 15 minutes is warranted to confirm the reading and take appropriate actions if necessary. Waiting for two months (Choice B) or a week (Choice D) could pose risks of delaying intervention. Seeing the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is a good option, but in this case, the urgency is not as high as to require immediate attention at the healthcare provider's office.
3. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?
- A. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
- B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
- C. The infant likely has only one testis.
- D. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.
4. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?
- A. Following surgery
- B. Upon admission
- C. Within 48 hours of discharge
- D. Preoperative discussion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.
5. Which of the following statements best describes compartment syndrome?
- A. An injury causes pain and tingling that starts in the buttock and travels down the leg.
- B. An injury causes swelling within muscle tissue that leads to anoxia of nerves and muscles.
- C. An injury causes permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint, resulting in deformity.
- D. An injury causes pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Compartment syndrome is characterized by swelling and increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to nerves and muscles. This can result from various causes, such as trauma or the application of a cast after a fracture. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to tissue necrosis. Choice A is incorrect as pain and tingling starting in the buttock and traveling down the leg are not specific features of compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint is unrelated to compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve do not describe compartment syndrome.
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