Nursing Elites

1. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?

• A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
• B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
• C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
• D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.

2. A group of nurses who work on the quality assurance council of a unit have gathered to discuss ideas about how to educate their coworkers about Joint Commission requirements. Each of the nurses gives ideas, which are listed together without initial criticism. Eventually, all ideas on the list will be discussed as to their validity. This activity is known as:

• A. Optimizing
• B. Satisficing
• C. Brainstorming
• D. Centralizing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Brainstorming is the process in which group members generate ideas without immediate criticism or evaluation. This allows for a free flow of creative suggestions. The ideas are then listed together for consideration and discussion of their validity at a later stage. Optimizing, although related to improving efficiency, does not specifically address the initial idea generation process. Satisficing refers to accepting a satisfactory or 'good enough' solution rather than seeking the best possible option, which is not reflective of the scenario described. Centralizing typically refers to consolidating decision-making authority rather than the collaborative idea generation process seen in brainstorming.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an indwelling catheter in a female client. Which of the following positions of the client is most appropriate for this procedure?

• A. Lithotomy position
• B. Prone position
• C. Dorsal recumbent position
• D. High Fowler's position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When preparing to insert an indwelling catheter for a female client, the most appropriate position is the dorsal recumbent position. In this position, the client lies on their back with knees bent. This position allows for easy access to the urethral area for catheter insertion. The lithotomy position, with legs elevated and spread apart, is more invasive and typically used for gynecological exams. The prone position, lying face down, is not suitable for catheter insertion. High Fowler's position, sitting upright at a 90-degree angle, is not ideal for catheter insertion as it does not provide proper access to the perineal area.

4. The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about chiropractic treatment for illnesses. What should be the focus of the nurse's response?

• A. Electrical energy fields
• B. Spinal column manipulation
• C. Mind-body balance
• D. Exercise of joints

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The focus of the nurse's response should be on spinal column manipulation when discussing chiropractic treatment for illnesses. Chiropractic theory emphasizes that misalignment of the vertebrae can interfere with the transmission of mental impulses between the brain and body organs, leading to diseases. Manipulation is aimed at reducing such misalignments, known as subluxations. While mind-body balance and exercise of joints are important aspects of holistic health, in the context of chiropractic treatment, the key intervention is spinal column manipulation to address vertebral misalignments. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary focus of chiropractic treatment.

5. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

• A. Pulmonary embolectomy
• B. Vena caval interruption
• C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
• D. Thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

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