a 23 year old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days she experiences sudden shortness of breath a
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

Correct answer: Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

Rationale: In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These clots can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice A) is less likely in a young patient without a significant history of atherosclerosis. Anxiety attacks (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this context. Congestive heart failure (Choice D) is less probable given the acute onset of symptoms and absence of typical signs like peripheral edema in this case.

2. A 27-year-old writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially the nurse should plan this for a manic client:

Correct answer: Set realistic limits to the client’s behavior

Rationale: For a manic client who is hyperactive and may engage in injurious activities, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is crucial to ensure safety. A quiet environment with firm and consistent limits helps in managing the client's behavior effectively. While repeating verbal instructions can be helpful due to the client's distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety concerns. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but it should be done through non-destructive methods. Assigning staff to be with the client at all times is not realistic or feasible in the clinical setting and does not address the core issue of managing the client's behavior and ensuring safety.

3. A writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially, the nurse should plan this for a manic client:

Correct answer: Set realistic limits to the client’s behavior

Rationale: For a manic client who is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive, setting realistic limits to the client’s behavior is essential to ensure safety as manic clients may engage in injurious activities. A quiet environment and consistent, firm limits help to maintain control. While repeating verbal instructions may be necessary due to distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but only non-destructive methods of expression should be permitted. Assigning a staff member to be with the client at all times is not a realistic approach as it may not always be feasible or necessary for managing manic behavior effectively.

4. You are attempting to teach the wife of a Greek patient how to administer his gastrostomy tube feedings once he returns home. She smiles and nods through your explanations, but when you ask her for a return demonstration, she looks confused and shakes her head. Her daughter enters the room and states that she does not speak English. What would be most helpful in this situation?

Correct answer: Teach both and ask the daughter to translate for you

Rationale: Teaching both the patient's wife and the daughter is the best option in this situation. The daughter may not always be available, and the wife is eager to care for her husband at home. While a hospital interpreter is often preferred, asking the daughter to interpret is a good alternative. This approach allows the daughter to receive instruction and reinforce it for herself as she translates it to her mother. Contacting a home health agency may not be necessary if family members are willing and able to assist. Providing a pamphlet with detailed instructions would not be as effective in ensuring the wife fully understands the procedure and can carry it out correctly.

5. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

Correct answer: Upon admission

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

Similar Questions

The nurse teaches a patient about the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective?
When a nurse is asked by a physician to speak to a colleague about their unprofessional behavior in front of a client but chooses not to confront the colleague and avoids the physician the next day, what type of conflict resolution is the nurse exhibiting?
What might be signaled when a client tells the nurse to 'pray for me' and entrusts her wedding ring to the nurse?
The nurse is performing discharge teaching for Mrs. S after cardiac angioplasty. Her husband is present for the teaching. While explaining the prescription for antiplatelet medication to use at home, Mrs. S's husband states, 'I don't think I can afford to refill that medication.' What is the most appropriate response of the nurse?
A woman presents with bruises on her face and back in various stages of healing. She states, 'sometimes he just gets so angry.' Which of the following statements is most appropriate as a response from the nurse?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses