NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Your patient has been diagnosed with a left ankle sprain. On the discharge instructions, the physician has prescribed the RICE protocol. This acronym stands for:
- A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
- B. Radiology, Ice, Compression, Elevation
- C. Rest, Ice, Cast, Elevation
- D. Radiology, Ice, Cast, Elevation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. This acronym, RICE, is commonly used for the treatment of injuries like an ankle sprain. Rest allows the injured area to heal, Ice helps reduce swelling and pain (20 minutes on each hour while awake), Compression is usually achieved with an elastic bandage to minimize swelling, and Elevation of the foot above the level of the heart assists in reducing swelling and promoting healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they include irrelevant terms like Radiology and Cast, which are not part of the standard treatment protocol for an ankle sprain.
2. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?
- A. Delirium
- B. Muscle rigidity
- C. Hypotension
- D. Pinpoint rash
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.
3. Gio told his nurse that the FBI is monitoring and recording his every movement and that microphones have been placed in the unit walls. Which action would be the most therapeutic response?
- A. Confront the delusional material directly by telling Gio that this simply is not so.
- B. Tell Gio that this must seem frightening to him but that you believe he is safe here.
- C. Tell Gio to wait and talk about these beliefs in his one-on-one counseling sessions.
- D. Isolate Gio when he begins to talk about these beliefs.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most therapeutic response in this situation is to acknowledge Gio's feelings of fear and validate his experience by expressing empathy ('this must seem frightening to him'). By reassuring Gio that he is safe in the current environment, the nurse can help reduce his anxiety and build trust. Choice A is not recommended as directly confronting delusional beliefs may lead to increased distress and resistance. Choice C delays addressing Gio's concerns and may not provide immediate support. Choice D of isolating Gio can worsen his feelings of paranoia and distrust in the treatment setting.
4. A client with a broken femur is in a traction splint in bed. Which of the following interventions is NOT part of caring for this client?
- A. Palpating the temperature of both feet
- B. Evaluating pulses bilaterally
- C. Turning the client to a side-lying position
- D. Relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client with a broken femur in a traction splint, turning the client to a side-lying position is not recommended. This client is at risk of skin breakdown and complications due to the injury, making it important to prevent unnecessary movement that may increase the risk of injury or discomfort. Palpating the temperature of both feet helps in assessing circulation, evaluating pulses bilaterally ensures perfusion to the extremities, and relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot helps in reducing pressure points and preventing complications like pressure ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is turning the client to a side-lying position as it is not a recommended intervention in this scenario.
5. Mr. Y had surgery two days ago and is recovering on the surgical unit of the hospital. Just before lunch, he develops chest pain and difficulties with breathing. His respiratory rate is 32/minute, his temperature is 100.8°F, and he has rales on auscultation. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate in this situation?
- A. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
- B. Contact the physician for an order for antibiotics
- C. Administer oxygen therapy
- D. Decrease his IV rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, mild fever, and rales or crackles on auscultation in a client who had surgery 2 days ago may be indicative of a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should administer oxygen to address his breathing and assist him to a comfortable position to facilitate better oxygenation before contacting the physician. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended in this situation as it may worsen a potential pulmonary embolism by increasing venous return. Contacting the physician for antibiotics is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the breathing difficulty. Decreasing the IV rate is not indicated in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory distress and needs oxygen therapy.
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