Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of effective time management?

• A. Always agreeing to others' requests for help
• B. Arranging long meetings to discuss important data
• C. Using multiple forms of technology to communicate or educate others
• D. Working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Effective time management involves strategies that help individuals focus and complete tasks efficiently. Working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions is an example of effective time management as it allows for concentration and productivity without distractions. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of effective time management. Always agreeing to others' requests for help can lead to overcommitment and time mismanagement. Arranging long meetings can be counterproductive as they consume time that could be used for actual work. Using multiple forms of technology, though helpful, can lead to information overload and inefficiency if not managed properly. Therefore, the most effective choice for optimal time management in this scenario is working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions.

2. Jaime has a diagnosis of schizophrenia with negative symptoms. In planning care for the client, Nurse Brienne would anticipate a problem with:

• A. Auditory hallucinations
• B. Bizarre behaviors
• C. Ideas of reference
• D. Motivation for activities

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as Jaime, a common problem is avolition, which is the lack of motivation for activities. These 'negative' symptoms are characterized by inexpressive faces, blank looks, monotone speech, few gestures, and a seeming lack of interest in the world. Patients may also experience an inability to feel pleasure or act spontaneously. It is crucial to differentiate between the lack of expression and lack of feeling, as well as between lack of will and lack of activity. Auditory hallucinations (choice A) are positive symptoms, not typically associated with negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Bizarre behaviors (choice B) are more aligned with positive symptoms like disorganized behavior. Ideas of reference (choice C) involve incorrectly interpreting casual incidents and external events as having direct reference to oneself, which is not directly related to motivation for activities seen in negative symptoms.

3. Plantar flexion can be prevented with ________________.

• A. foot soaks
• B. foot boards
• C. toenail care
• D. proper shoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Plantar flexion, or foot drop, can be prevented with foot boards, special splints, and range of motion exercises. Foot boards help maintain the foot in a neutral position, preventing contractures and deformities. Foot soaks (choice A) may help with foot hygiene but do not directly prevent plantar flexion. Toenail care (choice C) is important for overall foot health but does not prevent plantar flexion. Proper shoes (choice D) are essential for foot support and comfort but do not specifically prevent plantar flexion.

4. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?

• A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
• B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
• C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
• D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.

5. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?

• A. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
• B. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease.
• C. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
• D. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.

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