Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of effective time management?

• A. Always agreeing to others' requests for help
• B. Arranging long meetings to discuss important data
• C. Using multiple forms of technology to communicate or educate others
• D. Working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Effective time management involves strategies that help individuals focus and complete tasks efficiently. Working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions is an example of effective time management as it allows for concentration and productivity without distractions. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of effective time management. Always agreeing to others' requests for help can lead to overcommitment and time mismanagement. Arranging long meetings can be counterproductive as they consume time that could be used for actual work. Using multiple forms of technology, though helpful, can lead to information overload and inefficiency if not managed properly. Therefore, the most effective choice for optimal time management in this scenario is working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions.

2. Upon admission to the stroke care unit of a rehabilitation center, what is the primary action of the nurse?

• A. Collect and organize documents for the client's medical record
• B. Prepare the client's identification bracelet
• C. Identify pertinent health history data and current needs and limitations
• D. Gather the client's valuables and secure them in a locked container

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is admitted to a stroke care unit in a rehabilitation center, the nurse's initial priority is to assess the client. This assessment includes identifying relevant health history data that may impact the client's care. By recognizing the client's current needs and limitations, the nurse can develop a comprehensive understanding of the client's condition. This information is crucial for generating a nursing diagnosis and establishing appropriate care outcomes. While collecting and organizing documents for the medical record, preparing identification bracelets, and securing valuables are important tasks, they are not the primary actions that directly influence the client's immediate care upon admission.

3. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

4. A client is discharged following hospitalization for congestive heart failure. The nurse teaching the family suggests they encourage the client to rest frequently in which of the following positions?

• A. High Fowler's
• B. Supine
• C. Left lateral
• D. Low Fowler's

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is "High Fowler's" position. Sitting in a chair or resting in a bed in a high Fowler's position decreases the cardiac workload and facilitates breathing. This position helps reduce the work of breathing and promotes optimal lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Supine position (choice B) is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for clients with congestive heart failure as it can increase pressure on the heart. Left lateral position (choice C) is commonly used for promoting circulation in clients with certain conditions but is not the most appropriate for congestive heart failure. Low Fowler's position (choice D) is not recommended as it does not provide the same benefits in terms of reducing cardiac workload and easing breathing as the high Fowler's position.

5. Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a negative chest x-ray for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has no symptoms of TB. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse?

• A. Standard four-drug therapy for TB
• B. Need for annual repeat TB skin testing
• C. Use and side effects of isoniazid (INH)
• D. Bacille Calmette-Gurin (BCG) vaccine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is considered to have a latent TB infection and should be treated with INH daily for 6 to 9 months. The four-drug therapy would be appropriate if the nurse had active TB. TB skin testing is not done for individuals who have already had a positive skin test. BCG vaccine is not used in the United States for TB and would not be helpful for this individual, who already has a TB infection.

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