Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of effective time management?

• A. Always agreeing to others' requests for help
• B. Arranging long meetings to discuss important data
• C. Using multiple forms of technology to communicate or educate others
• D. Working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Effective time management involves strategies that help individuals focus and complete tasks efficiently. Working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions is an example of effective time management as it allows for concentration and productivity without distractions. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of effective time management. Always agreeing to others' requests for help can lead to overcommitment and time mismanagement. Arranging long meetings can be counterproductive as they consume time that could be used for actual work. Using multiple forms of technology, though helpful, can lead to information overload and inefficiency if not managed properly. Therefore, the most effective choice for optimal time management in this scenario is working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions.

2. If you are caring for a patient of the Hindu culture, what may you anticipate regarding visitors?

• A. Limited visitors, respectful of privacy
• B. Family members only
• C. Large number of visitors/community support
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Hindu culture, there is a strong sense of community and support. It is common for a patient to receive a large number of visitors, indicative of the community coming together to provide emotional and practical support. This support network is crucial for the patient's well-being and healing process. Option A, limited visitors, is incorrect as the Hindu culture values community involvement. Option B, family members only, is incorrect as the support network extends beyond just family. Option D, none of the above, is incorrect as the Hindu culture typically involves community support and a significant number of visitors.

3. When teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition, what should the nurse emphasize?

• A. Eating three balanced meals a day
• B. Adding complex carbohydrates
• C. Avoiding very heavy meals
• D. Limiting sodium intake to 7 g per day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to emphasize avoiding very heavy meals. Eating large, heavy meals can divert blood away from the heart for digestion, potentially endangering clients with coronary artery disease. This practice may lead to an increased risk of plaque accumulation in the arteries, potentially obstructing the delivery of blood and oxygen to vital organs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While eating three balanced meals a day, adding complex carbohydrates, and limiting sodium intake are generally good dietary practices, they are not the primary focus when teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition. The emphasis should be on avoiding heavy meals that can strain the cardiovascular system.

4. A client with adrenal insufficiency has a potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L. Which of the following signs or symptoms might the client exhibit with this result?

• A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Constipation
• D. A prominent U wave on the ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability. Muscle spasms (Choice B) are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical sign of hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave on the ECG (Choice D) is associated with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.

5. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

• A. Pulmonary embolectomy
• B. Vena caval interruption
• C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
• D. Thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

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