NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Which of these clients is likely to receive sublingual morphine?
- A. A 75-year-old woman in a hospice program
- B. A 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery
- C. A 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia
- D. A 60-year-old man who has a painful incision
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a 75-year-old woman in a hospice program. Sublingual morphine is commonly used in hospice care because patients may have difficulty swallowing, and intravenous access can be uncomfortable and not ideal for palliative care. Choice B, a 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery, is less likely to receive sublingual morphine as he may be able to swallow, and other pain management options may be more suitable. Choice C, a 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia, would typically require specific medications targeting neuropathic pain rather than sublingual morphine. Choice D, a 60-year-old man with a painful incision, may benefit from localized pain relief or other systemic pain management options, but sublingual morphine is not usually the first choice for this type of pain.
2. The patient in the emergency room has a history of alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and abruptly stopped taking Xanax about 24 hours ago. He presents with visible tremors, pacing, fear, impaired concentration, and memory. Which intervention takes priority?
- A. Have the patient lie down on a stretcher with bed rails raised
- B. Offer the patient a cup of water and a small amount of food
- C. Reassure the patient about his well-being
- D. Inform the physician about the patient's Xanax withdrawal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The 1-4 day period after Xanax withdrawal is critical as it poses the highest risk of life-threatening seizures. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden cessation can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. The patient's visible tremors, fear, pacing, and cognitive impairment indicate a state of heightened distress and potential seizure risk. Placing the patient on a stretcher with raised bed rails is essential for seizure precautions, ensuring safety and preventing injury during a potential seizure. Offering water and food, reassuring the patient, or informing the physician about Xanax withdrawal are not immediate priorities compared to managing the risk of seizures in this high-risk situation.
3. A 30-year-old man is being admitted to the hospital for elective knee surgery. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen
- B. Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin
- C. Bowel sounds of 20/minute in each quadrant
- D. Aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin.' Normally, the lower border of the liver is not palpable below the ribs, so this finding suggests hepatomegaly, which could indicate an underlying health issue. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen, bowel sounds of 20/minute in each quadrant, and aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area are all within normal limits for a physical assessment and do not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
4. Which patient poses the least infection risk to an immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant?
- A. The patient with chronic pancreatitis
- B. The patient currently infected with a respiratory virus
- C. The patient with a healing leg wound
- D. The patient with a urinary tract infection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient with a healing leg wound poses the least infection risk to an immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant. Chronic pancreatitis can lead to complications such as infections that can pose a risk to immunosuppressed individuals. Patients infected with respiratory viruses or urinary tract infections are actively infectious, which can put immunosuppressed patients at a higher risk of acquiring infections. Therefore, the patient with a healing leg wound is the least likely to pose an immediate infection risk.
5. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority?
- A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness
- B. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness
- C. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions
- D. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.' While all the nursing diagnoses are relevant to the patient's condition, the priority should be given to impaired gas exchange due to the patient's low oxygen saturation level of 88%. This indicates a significant risk of hypoxia for all body tissues unless the gas exchange is improved. Addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. Hyperthermia, impaired transfer ability, and ineffective airway clearance are important concerns but addressing gas exchange takes precedence in this scenario.
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