Nursing Elites

1. Which of these clients is likely to receive sublingual morphine?

• A. A 75-year-old woman in a hospice program
• B. A 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery
• C. A 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia
• D. A 60-year-old man who has a painful incision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a 75-year-old woman in a hospice program. Sublingual morphine is commonly used in hospice care because patients may have difficulty swallowing, and intravenous access can be uncomfortable and not ideal for palliative care. Choice B, a 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery, is less likely to receive sublingual morphine as he may be able to swallow, and other pain management options may be more suitable. Choice C, a 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia, would typically require specific medications targeting neuropathic pain rather than sublingual morphine. Choice D, a 60-year-old man with a painful incision, may benefit from localized pain relief or other systemic pain management options, but sublingual morphine is not usually the first choice for this type of pain.

2. After a bronchoscopy, what is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a chronic cough?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 80 to 90 degrees.
• B. Keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns.
• C. Place the patient on bed rest for at least 4 hours after bronchoscopy.
• D. Notify the health care provider about blood-tinged mucus.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns after a bronchoscopy. This is important because a local anesthetic is used during the procedure to suppress the gag and cough reflexes. Monitoring the return of these reflexes helps prevent the risk of aspiration and ensures the patient can safely resume oral intake. While blood-tinged mucus can occur after bronchoscopy, it is a common occurrence and not a cause for immediate concern. Placing the patient on bed rest for an extended period is unnecessary, and elevating the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position is not specifically required post-bronchoscopy.

3. A 67-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective?

• A. Bowel sounds are present.
• B. Grey Turner sign resolves.
• C. Electrolyte levels are normal.
• D. Abdominal pain is decreased.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Abdominal pain is decreased.' In a patient with acute pancreatitis, the goal of using an NG tube for suction and keeping the patient NPO is to decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes and alleviate pain. Therefore, a decrease in abdominal pain would indicate the effectiveness of these therapies. Bowel sounds being present do not necessarily indicate treatment effectiveness, as they can still be present even if the therapies are not fully effective. Normal electrolyte levels are important but do not directly reflect the efficacy of NG suction and NPO status. The resolution of Grey Turner sign, a bruising over the flanks associated with pancreatitis, is a late and non-specific finding and waiting for it to resolve is not a reliable indicator of treatment effectiveness.

4. The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is

• A. maintaining normal respiratory function.
• B. expressing satisfaction with pain control.
• C. developing no ongoing pancreatic disease.
• D. having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute severe pancreatitis, there is a risk of respiratory failure as a complication, making the maintenance of normal respiratory function the priority outcome. This patient may develop respiratory issues due to the inflammatory process affecting the diaphragm. While pain control, absence of ongoing pancreatic disease, and fluid/electrolyte balance are crucial, they are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation to prevent respiratory compromise.

5. After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Teach about drug-resistant TB treatment
• B. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed
• C. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly
• D. Discuss with the healthcare provider the need for the patient to use an injectable antibiotic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Teaching about drug-resistant TB treatment (Choice A) is premature without knowing the current medication compliance status. Scheduling directly observed therapy (Choice C) assumes non-compliance without confirming it first. Discussing the need for an injectable antibiotic (Choice D) is premature and not necessarily indicated without assessing the current medication adherence.

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