which of these clients is likely to receive sublingual morphine

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. Which of these clients is likely to receive sublingual morphine?

A. A 75-year-old woman in a hospice program
B. A 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery
C. A 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia
D. A 60-year-old man who has a painful incision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a 75-year-old woman in a hospice program. Sublingual morphine is commonly used in hospice care because patients may have difficulty swallowing, and intravenous access can be uncomfortable and not ideal for palliative care. Choice B, a 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery, is less likely to receive sublingual morphine as he may be able to swallow, and other pain management options may be more suitable. Choice C, a 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia, would typically require specific medications targeting neuropathic pain rather than sublingual morphine. Choice D, a 60-year-old man with a painful incision, may benefit from localized pain relief or other systemic pain management options, but sublingual morphine is not usually the first choice for this type of pain.

2. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?

A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.

3. The parents of a newborn with hypospadias are reviewing the treatment plan with the nurse. Which statement by the parents indicates their understanding of the plan?

A. Caution should be used when straddling my infant on a hip.
B. Vital signs should be taken daily to check for bladder infection.
C. Catheterization will be necessary when my infant does not void.
D. Circumcision has been delayed to save tissue for surgical repair.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital defect involving abnormal placement of the urethral orifice of the penis. In hypospadias, the urethral orifice is located below the glans penis along the ventral surface. It's important not to circumcise the infant, as the dorsal foreskin tissue will be required for surgical repair of the hypospadias. Option A is unrelated to the treatment plan for hypospadias. Option B is not directly related to the surgical repair of hypospadias. Option C is not a routine part of the treatment plan for hypospadias, as catheterization is usually managed by healthcare professionals.

4. Which clinical manifestations are recognized in nephrotic syndrome?

A. Hematuria, bacteriuria, weight gain
B. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, fever
C. Hypertension, weight loss, proteinuria
D. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. In this syndrome, there is loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine leading to hypoalbuminemia, fluid retention, and subsequent edema. This results in elevated lipid levels like hypercholesterolemia, but not hypertension. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hematuria, bacteriuria, fever, and weight loss are not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome, distinguishing it from other kidney disorders.

5. A 49-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is to begin treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching?

A. Recommendation to drink at least 4 L of fluid daily
B. Need to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery
C. How to draw up and administer injections of the medication
D. Use of contraceptive methods other than oral contraceptives

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When initiating treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone), patient education should focus on teaching the patient how to draw up and administer injections of the medication. Copaxone is administered via self-injection, hence understanding the correct technique is crucial for successful treatment. Recommendations regarding fluid intake or the need to avoid driving heavy machinery are not directly related to glatiramer acetate therapy. Additionally, while discussing contraceptive methods may be important, the use of oral contraceptives does not specifically contraindicate the use of glatiramer acetate.