Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

• A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
• B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
• C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
• D. Dopamine system stabilizers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

2. Which of these statements best describes the characteristics of an effective reward feedback system?

• A. Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
• B. Staff is given feedback in equal amounts over time
• C. Positive statements precede negative statements
• D. Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that specific feedback should be given as close to the event as possible in an effective reward feedback system. This is important because feedback is most useful when provided immediately. Giving feedback promptly reinforces positive behavior and helps in modifying problem behaviors. Providing feedback close to the event helps in ensuring that standards are clearly understood and can be met. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because staff should not be given feedback in equal amounts over time, positive statements do not necessarily have to precede negative statements, and setting performance goals higher than what is attainable can lead to demotivation and decreased performance.

3. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?

• A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
• B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
• C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
• D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.

4. A nurse caring for a pediatric client shows little concern when the parents attempt to speak with her about their daughter's illness. When approached by the nurse manager about her behavior, the nurse responds by saying, 'I don't want to get involved. It doesn't matter what I do anyway; my work does not make much of a difference.' This nurse is exhibiting which of the following characteristics?

• A. Objectivity
• B. Depersonalization
• C. Procrastination
• D. Disruption

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Depersonalization.' A nurse who distances themselves from clients to avoid emotional involvement is displaying depersonalization. This behavior is often seen in nurses experiencing burnout due to stress. Depersonalization can stem from low morale, moral distress, and may serve as a defense mechanism to cope with stress and emotional exhaustion. It is a way to shield oneself from feeling overwhelmed by the burdens of caring for others. Choice A, 'Objectivity,' is incorrect because objectivity involves maintaining a neutral and unbiased perspective, which is not the case here. Choice C, 'Procrastination,' is incorrect as it refers to delaying tasks, not emotional distancing. Choice D, 'Disruption,' is irrelevant to the scenario described and does not align with the nurse's behavior of detachment and lack of concern.

5. Which of the following components is associated with hypertonic dehydration?

• A. Plasma sodium levels above 150 mEq/L
• B. Fluid moves from extracellular space to intracellular space
• C. Water loss is greater than electrolyte loss
• D. Physical signs and symptoms are grossly apparent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Water loss is greater than electrolyte loss.' In hypertonic dehydration, there is a higher loss of water compared to electrolytes, leading to elevated concentrations of electrolytes in the body. This condition is characterized by plasma sodium levels above 150 mEq/L. As water moves from the extracellular space to the intracellular space, it results in cellular dehydration. Choice A is incorrect because the plasma sodium levels associated with hypertonic dehydration are typically above 150 mEq/L, not between 130 and 150 mEq/L. Choice B is incorrect as fluid moves from the extracellular space to the intracellular space in hypertonic dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because physical signs and symptoms may not always be grossly apparent in hypertonic dehydration.

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