Nursing Elites

1. As you are assessing the fetus during labor, you are determining the fetal lie, presentation, attitude, station, and position. Your client asks you what all these assessments are. Among other things, how should you respond to the mother?

• A. You should explain that fetal lie is where the fetus's presenting part is within the birth canal during labor, among other information about the other assessments.
• B. You should explain that fetal presentation is the relationship of the fetus's spine to the mother's spine, among other information about the other assessments.
• C. You should explain that fetal attitude is the relationship of the fetus's presenting part to the anterior, posterior, right, or left side of the mother's pelvis, among other information about the other assessments.
• D. You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines, among other information about the other assessments.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines. Fetal station is measured in terms of the number of centimeters above or below the mother's ischial spines. When the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters above the ischial spines, the fetal station is -1 to -5, and when the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters below the level of the maternal ischial spines, the fetal station is +1 to +5. Choices A, B, and C provide incorrect information about fetal lie, presentation, and attitude, respectively, which do not align with the definitions of these terms in obstetrics.

2. An assisted living facility is an example of which type of healthcare provider?

• A. Primary care
• B. Secondary care
• C. Tertiary care
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An assisted living facility is an example of a tertiary care provider. Tertiary care providers offer specialized services such as rehabilitation, long-term care, and management of complex medical conditions. These services are typically provided after primary and secondary care interventions. Choice A, primary care, focuses on preventive care and routine medical treatment for common illnesses, which is not the level of care provided by assisted living facilities. Choice B, secondary care, involves specialized medical services provided by medical specialists and hospitals for conditions that require a higher level of expertise than primary care, but it is not the level of care provided by assisted living facilities. Choice D, None of the above, is incorrect as assisted living facilities fall under the category of tertiary care providers.

3. A nurse is using active listening as a form of therapeutic communication when:

• A. She uses humor to put the client at ease in a situation
• B. She restates what the client said in slightly different words
• C. She uses eye contact and maintains an open stance while the client is talking
• D. She provides personal information to show the client she can relate to him

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Active listening is a form of therapeutic communication that involves the nurse encouraging a client to express their thoughts and feelings. Maintaining eye contact and an open stance while the client is talking demonstrates active listening and shows the client that they are being heard and understood. Using humor (Choice A) may not always be appropriate or therapeutic in all situations. Restating what the client said (Choice B) is a technique known as paraphrasing and is also a form of active listening. Providing personal information (Choice D) can shift the focus from the client to the nurse, which is not the intention of active listening.

4. A client needs to give informed consent for electroconvulsive therapy treatments. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the adverse effects the client might experience from the treatment
• B. Verify the client gave consent voluntarily for the treatment
• C. Describe the benefits of the treatment to the client
• D. Outline possible alternatives to the treatment for the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining informed consent for a procedure like electroconvulsive therapy, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure that the client has given consent voluntarily and is capable of making such a decision. While it is essential to provide information on the treatment's benefits, risks, and alternatives, the priority is to verify the client's voluntary consent. Explaining the adverse effects and describing the benefits are important steps in the informed consent process, but the critical step is to confirm the client's voluntary agreement. Outlining possible alternatives to the treatment is also important but comes after ensuring the client's voluntary consent.

5. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Delirium
• B. Muscle rigidity
• C. Hypotension
• D. Pinpoint rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

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