Nursing Elites

1. A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate?

• A. MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy
• B. Women with MS frequently have premature labor
• C. MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects
• D. Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After pregnancy, women with MS are at higher risk for exacerbation of symptoms due to the postpartum period. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born to mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may actually improve during pregnancy, likely due to hormonal changes. MS does not significantly impact the onset of labor. Therefore, the correct response is that MS symptoms may worsen after pregnancy, making option A the accurate answer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the risks associated with pregnancy in individuals with MS.

2. All of the following are essential components of supervision EXCEPT:

• A. All tasks to be delegated or supervised are within the nurse's scope of practice
• B. The necessary tasks require repeated assessments
• C. The nurse has adequate time to develop staff assignments
• D. Policies have been developed that govern nursing practice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Supervision in nursing requires key components to ensure effective management. Tasks to be delegated or supervised must align with the nurse's scope of practice to maintain safety and quality care. Adequate time for staff assignment development is essential for efficient workflow. Policies governing nursing practice provide a framework for safe and standardized care. However, the statement 'The necessary tasks require repeated assessments' is not an essential component of supervision. Tasks should be clear, achievable, and not necessitate repeated assessments, as this would impede delegation and efficient completion. Repeated assessments may indicate unclear task delegation or inadequate initial assessment, which should be avoided in effective supervision.

3. Which of the following is an example of effective time management?

• A. Always agreeing to others' requests for help
• B. Arranging long meetings to discuss important data
• C. Using multiple forms of technology to communicate or educate others
• D. Working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Effective time management involves strategies that help individuals focus and complete tasks efficiently. Working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions is an example of effective time management as it allows for concentration and productivity without distractions. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of effective time management. Always agreeing to others' requests for help can lead to overcommitment and time mismanagement. Arranging long meetings can be counterproductive as they consume time that could be used for actual work. Using multiple forms of technology, though helpful, can lead to information overload and inefficiency if not managed properly. Therefore, the most effective choice for optimal time management in this scenario is working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions.

4. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

5. Which of the following is an example of intrapersonal conflict?

• A. A nurse feels guilty when she administers essential medication that causes a client to have nausea and vomiting
• B. A nurse is called to testify in court about a client she cared for three years ago
• C. A nurse feels guilty for working overtime
• D. A nurse faces a conflict with a colleague over patient care decisions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intrapersonal conflict involves negative feelings or frustrations within oneself. It may be related to decisions or actions that clash with personal morals or beliefs. Choice A is the correct answer because the nurse is experiencing guilt due to administering medication that causes a client to have negative side effects, which reflects an internal struggle. Choices B, C, and D do not represent intrapersonal conflict. Choice B involves a legal obligation, Choice C is related to external factors like working overtime, and Choice D pertains to a conflict with a colleague.

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