Nursing Elites

1. The key to the prevention of a pandemic influenza is:

• A. Early detection
• B. Early antibiotic treatment
• C. Vaccination of at-risk populations
• D. Isolation of suspected cases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The key to preventing a pandemic influenza is early detection. Detecting influenza cases early allows for timely public health responses to limit the spread of the virus. Early detection helps in implementing measures such as isolation, treatment, and vaccination to prevent the development of a full-blown pandemic. Antibiotics are not effective against influenza viruses, so early antibiotic treatment is not the key to prevention. While vaccination of at-risk populations is important in controlling the spread of influenza, early detection is crucial as it allows for timely implementation of vaccination strategies. Isolation of suspected cases is a containment measure rather than a prevention strategy; the key to prevention lies in early detection to stop the spread before it becomes a pandemic.

2. A nurse is asked to perform a task that she believes is outside her scope of practice. What is the appropriate response to this issue?

• A. Contact the state board of nursing licensure to report the offense
• B. Review the state scope of practice standards for nurses
• C. Ask another nurse to perform the task to learn the procedure
• D. Contact the house supervisor to make the decision on whether the nurse should perform the task

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When faced with a task that a nurse believes may be beyond their scope of practice, it is essential to refer to the state's specific scope of practice standards for nurses. This step is crucial as these standards can vary between states, providing clarity on what tasks are permissible. By reviewing these standards, the nurse can determine if the task falls within their scope of practice. Contacting the state board of nursing licensure to report the offense (Choice A) is premature and should only be considered if there is a serious violation after reviewing the scope of practice. Asking another nurse to perform the task (Choice C) does not address the issue of clarifying the scope of practice. Contacting the house supervisor (Choice D) may be necessary if the nurse cannot determine the appropriateness of the task based on the scope of practice standards.

3. A nurse caring for a pediatric client shows little concern when the parents attempt to speak with her about their daughter's illness. When approached by the nurse manager about her behavior, the nurse responds by saying, 'I don't want to get involved. It doesn't matter what I do anyway; my work does not make much of a difference.' This nurse is exhibiting which of the following characteristics?

• A. Objectivity
• B. Depersonalization
• C. Procrastination
• D. Disruption

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Depersonalization.' A nurse who distances themselves from clients to avoid emotional involvement is displaying depersonalization. This behavior is often seen in nurses experiencing burnout due to stress. Depersonalization can stem from low morale, moral distress, and may serve as a defense mechanism to cope with stress and emotional exhaustion. It is a way to shield oneself from feeling overwhelmed by the burdens of caring for others. Choice A, 'Objectivity,' is incorrect because objectivity involves maintaining a neutral and unbiased perspective, which is not the case here. Choice C, 'Procrastination,' is incorrect as it refers to delaying tasks, not emotional distancing. Choice D, 'Disruption,' is irrelevant to the scenario described and does not align with the nurse's behavior of detachment and lack of concern.

4. An assisted living facility is an example of which type of healthcare provider?

• A. Primary care
• B. Secondary care
• C. Tertiary care
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An assisted living facility is an example of a tertiary care provider. Tertiary care providers offer specialized services such as rehabilitation, long-term care, and management of complex medical conditions. These services are typically provided after primary and secondary care interventions. Choice A, primary care, focuses on preventive care and routine medical treatment for common illnesses, which is not the level of care provided by assisted living facilities. Choice B, secondary care, involves specialized medical services provided by medical specialists and hospitals for conditions that require a higher level of expertise than primary care, but it is not the level of care provided by assisted living facilities. Choice D, None of the above, is incorrect as assisted living facilities fall under the category of tertiary care providers.

5. A client is discharged following hospitalization for congestive heart failure. The nurse teaching the family suggests they encourage the client to rest frequently in which of the following positions?

• A. High Fowler's
• B. Supine
• C. Left lateral
• D. Low Fowler's

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is "High Fowler's" position. Sitting in a chair or resting in a bed in a high Fowler's position decreases the cardiac workload and facilitates breathing. This position helps reduce the work of breathing and promotes optimal lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Supine position (choice B) is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for clients with congestive heart failure as it can increase pressure on the heart. Left lateral position (choice C) is commonly used for promoting circulation in clients with certain conditions but is not the most appropriate for congestive heart failure. Low Fowler's position (choice D) is not recommended as it does not provide the same benefits in terms of reducing cardiac workload and easing breathing as the high Fowler's position.

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