which of the following statements made by a client during an individual therapy session would the nurse most identify as reflecting schizoaffective di
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NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. Which of the following statements made by a client during an individual therapy session would the nurse most identify as reflecting schizoaffective disorder?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, ''My thoughts are racing because of the conspiracies against me.'' Schizoaffective disorder combines the symptoms of bipolar disorder (mania and depression) with those of schizophrenia (delusions and disturbed thought processes). Racing thoughts are a characteristic symptom of a manic episode, while beliefs in conspiracies indicate paranoia, which are common in schizoaffective disorder. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically align with the symptoms of schizoaffective disorder. Choice A suggests self-harm, which may be seen in various mental health conditions; choice B reflects existential questioning or depression; and choice D describes hallucinations, which are more characteristic of schizophrenia rather than schizoaffective disorder.

2. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased intracranial pressure after head trauma can lead to serious complications. Repeated vomiting is a concerning sign as it can indicate stimulation of the vomiting center within the brainstem due to increased pressure. This can be an early indicator of raised intracranial pressure and the need for urgent medical intervention. Bulging anterior fontanel may not be immediately apparent in a 4-year-old child and is more common in infants. Signs of sleepiness at a particular time of day are not specific to increased intracranial pressure. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches may indicate vision problems but is not directly related to intracranial pressure.

3. A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/minute, blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient presents with symptoms indicative of a pulmonary embolism (PE), such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Elevating the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position is the priority to improve ventilation and gas exchange. This intervention should be initiated promptly to optimize oxygenation. Subsequent actions, such as notifying the healthcare provider, preparing for a spiral CT scan, and administering anticoagulant therapy, can follow after the patient's position is adjusted. The spiral CT scan is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of PE, and anticoagulant therapy is initiated upon confirmation of the diagnosis by the healthcare provider. Therefore, the immediate focus is on improving the patient's respiratory status by elevating the head of the bed.

4. The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.

5. Mr. L was working in his garage at home and had an accident with a power saw. He is brought into the emergency department by a neighbor with a traumatic hand amputation. What is the first action of the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply direct pressure to the injury. When a client presents with traumatic hand amputation causing excessive bleeding, the immediate goal is to control the bleeding. Applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing helps to stem the flow of blood and stabilize the patient. Placing a tourniquet at the level of the elbow should be avoided initially as it may lead to further complications such as tissue damage. Administering a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline is not the priority in this situation where hemorrhage control is crucial. Elevating the injured extremity on a pillow does not address the primary concern of controlling the bleeding and stabilizing the patient.

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