NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A nurse is educating a patient about bimatoprost (Lumigan) eyedrops for the treatment of Glaucoma. Which of the following indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of the expected outcomes following treatment?
- A. "I should be experiencing less blurriness in my central field of vision"
- B. "This medication won't help my vision at all, but will keep it from getting worse."
- C. "My peripheral vision should be increasing back to its normal state, but will take a few weeks to do so."
- D. "This medication will help my eye restor intraocular fluid and increase intraocular pressure"
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Glaucoma cannot be cured, just treated. Treatment revolves around preventing further deterioration.
2. A nurse has just started her rounds delivering medication. A new patient on her rounds is a 4-year-old boy who is non-verbal. This child does not have any identification on. What should the nurse do?
- A. Contact the provider
- B. Ask the child to write their name on paper
- C. Ask a coworker about the identification of the child
- D. Ask the father who is in the room the child's name
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When encountering a non-verbal child without identification, it is appropriate for the nurse to ask the accompanying parent or guardian for the child's name. The father, being present in the room, can provide the necessary information. This ensures accurate identification to deliver the correct medication. Contacting the provider may cause unnecessary delays. Asking a non-verbal child to write their name is not feasible. Asking a coworker may not provide reliable identification as they may not have direct knowledge.
3. A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse closely monitor during acute management of this patient?
- A. Onset of pulmonary edema
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Parkinson's disease type symptoms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the onset of pulmonary edema. In cases of aspirin overdose, metabolic acidosis is a common consequence that can lead to the development of pulmonary edema. Early signs of aspirin poisoning include symptoms like tinnitus, hyperventilation, vomiting, dehydration, and fever. Late signs may manifest as drowsiness, bizarre behavior, unsteady walking, and coma. Aspirin poisoning can cause abnormal breathing that is typically rapid and deep. Pulmonary edema may occur due to increased capillary permeability in the lungs, leading to the leakage of proteins and fluid transudation in renal and pulmonary tissues. Changes in renal tubule permeability can also affect colloid osmotic pressure, potentially contributing to pulmonary edema. Monitoring pulmonary edema is crucial in managing aspirin overdose cases to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because metabolic alkalosis, respiratory alkalosis, and Parkinson's disease type symptoms are not typically associated with aspirin overdose and are not primary concerns in its acute management.
4. A client is found unresponsive in his room by a nurse. The client is not breathing and does not have a pulse. After calling for help, what is the next action the nurse should take?
- A. Administer 2 ventilations
- B. Perform a head-tilt, chin lift to open the airway
- C. Begin chest compressions
- D. Perform a jaw thrust to open the airway
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After finding an unresponsive client who is not breathing and has no pulse, the nurse's immediate action should be to call for help and start chest compressions. Chest compressions should be initiated at a rate of at least 100 per minute and a depth of at least 2 inches. Choice A, administering ventilations, is not the initial step as compressions take priority. Choice B, performing a head-tilt, chin lift, is also not the first step; chest compressions are crucial before airway management. Choice D, performing a jaw thrust, is typically used in cases of suspected cervical spine injury and is not the immediate action in this scenario.
5. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:
- A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules.
- B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps.
- C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections.
- D. It is not "caught"? but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.
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