Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following lists the recommended sequence for removing soiled personal protective equipment when preparing to leave a patient's room?

• A. Gown, goggles, mask, gloves, and exit the room.
• B. Gloves, wash hands, remove gown, mask, and goggles.
• C. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and wash hands.
• D. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and wash hands.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing soiled personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. Gloves should always be removed first as they are most likely to be contaminated. Following the removal of gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and finally washing hands is recommended. Choice A is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice B is incorrect as the sequence is not in the recommended order. Choice D is incorrect as gloves should be removed before goggles.

2. Which theory reflects the view that illness is caused by an imbalance or disharmony in the forces of nature?

• A. Germ theory
• B. Naturalistic theory
• C. Magicoreligious theory
• D. Biomedical or scientific theory

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The naturalistic theory posits that illness results from an imbalance or disharmony in the forces of nature. According to this theory, maintaining a natural balance or harmony is essential to prevent illness. Conversely, germ theory and biomedical or scientific theory attribute illness to microorganisms, while magicoreligious theory attributes illness to supernatural forces such as deities or spirits. Therefore, the most appropriate theory reflecting the belief that illness arises from a disruption in natural forces is the naturalistic theory.

3. Which of the following is a negative outcome associated with impaired mobility?

• A. Increased amounts of calcium are absorbed from circulation
• B. A drop in blood pressure occurs when rising from a sitting to a standing position
• C. The amount of mucus in the bronchi and lungs decreases
• D. The vessel walls of the circulatory system thicken

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with impaired mobility may develop changes in body systems that put them at risk of further illness or injury. One negative outcome associated with impaired mobility is orthostatic hypotension, where blood pressure drops significantly when moving from a sitting or lying position to a standing position. This drop in blood pressure can lead to symptoms such as dizziness or fainting. This occurs because blood circulates more slowly or pools in the distal extremities due to impaired mobility. Choice A is incorrect because increased calcium absorption is not a typical negative outcome associated with impaired mobility. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in mucus in the bronchi and lungs is not a common negative outcome of impaired mobility. Choice D is incorrect because thickening of vessel walls in the circulatory system is not directly associated with impaired mobility.

4. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature"?36�C; pulse"?48 beats per minute; respirations"?14 breaths per minute; blood pressure"?104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?

• A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
• B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
• C. The patient's pulse rate is not normal"?no action is required.
• D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.

5. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 3-year-old patient who appears to have an irregular respiratory pattern. How would the nurse assess this child's respirations?

• A. Respirations should be counted for 1 full minute.
• B. Child's pulse and respirations should be simultaneously checked for 30 seconds and then multiplied by 2.
• C. Child's respirations should be checked for a minimum of 5 minutes to identify any variations in his or her respiratory pattern.
• D. Patient's respirations should be counted for 15 seconds and then multiplied by 4.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To accurately assess a child's respiratory pattern, the nurse should count respirations for a full minute. This duration provides a comprehensive view of the child's breathing pattern, ensuring abnormalities are not missed. Counting for only 30 seconds may not capture irregularities effectively. Checking respirations for 5 minutes is excessive and unnecessary for a routine assessment. Counting for 15 seconds and multiplying by 4 is not as precise as a full-minute count. Pulse and respirations should not be checked simultaneously; instead, the nurse should count respirations unobtrusively while appearing to take the child's pulse. Therefore, the correct approach is to count the child's respirations for 1 full minute to obtain an accurate assessment.

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