Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following scenarios provides an example of a healthcare professional overcoming a barrier to communication?

• A. A healthcare professional uses a visual aid to explain how to conduct a fingerstick glucose test to a patient with visual impairment.
• B. A healthcare professional writes down instructions for a patient who is hearing impaired.
• C. A healthcare professional raises their voice when speaking to a patient who does not speak English.
• D. A healthcare professional uses medical jargon while conversing with a minor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Overcoming barriers to communication in healthcare involves utilizing methods of communication that are accessible and understandable to the recipient. In the scenario provided, writing down instructions for a patient who is hearing impaired is an effective way to ensure clear communication and overcome the obstacle of hearing impairment. This method allows the patient to visually comprehend the information provided. Choice A is incorrect because using a visual aid for a visually impaired patient, not a hearing-impaired patient, would be more appropriate. Choice C is incorrect as raising one's voice does not address the language barrier effectively and may not enhance understanding. Choice D is incorrect as using complex medical terms with a minor may lead to confusion and hinder effective communication.

2. The client is a chronic carrier of infection. To prevent the spread of the infection to other clients or healthcare providers, the nurse emphasizes interventions that do which of the following? (Berman & Snyder, 2012, p. 713)

• A. Eliminate the reservoir
• B. Block the portal of exit from the reservoir
• C. Block the portal of entry into the host
• D. Decrease the susceptibility of the host

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent the spread of infection from a chronic carrier, the nurse should focus on blocking the portal of exit from the reservoir, which is the carrier person. By preventing the movement of the organism from the reservoir, the infection can be contained. Eliminating the reservoir is not feasible in this case as the carrier is a chronic carrier. Blocking the portal of entry into the host or decreasing the susceptibility of the host would only impact individual prevention and not the spread from the carrier to others.

3. A registered nurse who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?

• A. A middle-aged client who says, "I took too many diet pills"? and "my heart feels like it is racing out of my chest."?
• B. A young adult who says, "I hear songs from heaven. I need money for beer. I quit drinking two (2) days ago for my family. Why are my arms and legs jerking?"?
• C. An adolescent who has been on pain medications for terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding of pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11.
• D. An elderly client who reports having taken a "large crack hit"? 10 minutes prior to walking into the emergency room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assigning a floated nurse from another unit to a client in the emergency department, the goal is to choose a patient with minimal anticipated immediate complications. In this scenario, the adolescent with terminal cancer who has been on pain medications and presents with pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11 is the most stable option. These assessment findings indicate opioid toxicity, which, while serious, has the least risk of immediate complications compared to the other clients. Choice A involves a middle-aged client experiencing symptoms of possible cardiac issues due to diet pill overdose, which requires urgent intervention. Choice B presents a young adult with concerning symptoms of potential psychosis or substance withdrawal, requiring immediate attention. Choice D involves an elderly client who recently used crack, posing a high-risk situation that requires prompt evaluation and intervention. Therefore, the correct choice is the adolescent with opioid toxicity, as this client has the least immediate risk of complications among the options provided.

4. Which brain structure serves as the heat-regulating center?

• A. Hypothalamus
• B. Pituitary Gland
• C. Pons
• D. Medulla Oblongata

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating body temperature, ensuring it stays within a narrow range. Moreover, the hypothalamus controls various essential bodily functions, such as hunger, thirst, and circadian rhythms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Pituitary Gland primarily produces and releases hormones, the Pons is involved in functions like sleep, respiration, and bladder control, and the Medulla Oblongata controls vital functions like breathing and heart rate, but not body temperature regulation.

5. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?

• A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
• B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
• C. When dehydration is suspected.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.

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