Nursing Elites

1. The nurse suspects that a client is withholding health-related information out of fear of discovery and possible legal problems. The nurse formulates nursing diagnoses for the client carefully, being concerned about a diagnostic error resulting from which of the following?

• A. Incomplete data
• B. Generalizing from experience
• C. Identifying with the client
• D. Lack of clinical experience

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is cautious about potential diagnostic errors due to incomplete data. When a client withholds information, it can lead to incomplete data, which may result in inaccurate nursing diagnoses and care planning. Therefore, the nurse's primary concern is collecting accurate data to make informed clinical decisions. Choices B, C, and D are not relevant to the situation described. Generalizing from experience, identifying with the client, and lack of clinical experience do not directly address the issue of incomplete data impacting the diagnostic process.

2. To properly read a meniscus,

• A. hold the measuring device at eye level and read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level
• B. hold the measuring device at eye level and read the top of the curve of the liquid level where the liquid adheres to the walls of the container.
• C. hold the measuring device at table level and, looking down into the measuring device, read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level.
• D. hold the measuring device at table level and, looking down into the measuring device, read the top of the curve of the liquid level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To properly read a meniscus, it is essential to hold the measuring device at eye level to avoid parallax error. Reading the bottom of the curve of the liquid level is correct because the meniscus is the concave or convex curve at the liquid's surface. Choice B is incorrect because reading the top of the curve where the liquid adheres to the walls of the container can lead to inaccurate measurements. Choices C and D are incorrect as they suggest holding the device at table level, which can introduce parallax error and result in an incorrect reading.

3. When is the best time for the nurse to attempt to elicit the Moro reflex during an infant examination?

• A. When the infant is sleeping
• B. At the end of the examination
• C. Before auscultation of the thorax
• D. At about the middle of the examination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is best elicited at the end of the examination because it can cause the infant to cry. This reflex is triggered by a sudden change in position or loud noise, and it involves the infant's arms extending and then coming back together as if embracing. By eliciting this reflex at the end of the examination, the nurse can observe the infant's response and ensure that the examination is completed without unnecessary distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Moro reflex is typically elicited at the end of the examination to avoid disrupting the assessment process and causing unnecessary discomfort to the infant.

4. A 6-month-old infant has been brought to the well-child clinic for a checkup. The infant is currently sleeping. What would the nurse do first when beginning the examination?

• A. Wake the infant before beginning the examination.
• B. Examine the infant's hips before the infant wakes up.
• C. Auscultate the lungs and heart while the infant is still sleeping.
• D. Begin with the assessment of the eye and continue with the remainder of the examination in a head-to-toe approach.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the infant is quiet or sleeping, it is an ideal time to assess the cardiac, respiratory, and abdominal systems. It is recommended not to wake the infant unnecessarily. Auscultating the lungs and heart while the infant is still sleeping allows for a comprehensive assessment without disturbing the infant. Examining the infant's hips prematurely may disrupt the infant's sleep. Starting with an assessment of the eye is not appropriate as it is an invasive procedure and should be performed towards the end of the examination after the non-invasive assessments have been completed.

5. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Orthopnea
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.

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