Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube. Before administering the feeding, the healthcare professional aspirates some stomach contents and checks the pH. The result is 3.9. What is the next action of the healthcare professional?

• A. Administer the feeding as ordered
• B. Pull the feeding tube out approximately 3 cm
• C. Flush the feeding tube with 60 cc of water
• D. Contact the physician

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the pH of the aspirated stomach contents is 4 or less, it indicates that the gastrostomy tube is in the stomach, confirming correct placement. A pH of 3.9 falls within this range, so the healthcare professional can proceed with administering the enteral feeding. There is no need to adjust the tube placement, flush with water, or contact the physician in this situation as the tube is appropriately positioned for feeding.

2. A patient has suddenly developed shortness of breath and appears to be in significant respiratory distress. After calling the physician and placing the patient on oxygen, which of these actions is the best for the nurse to take when further assessing the patient?

• A. Count the patient's respirations.
• B. Bilaterally percuss the thorax, noting any differences in percussion tones.
• C. Call for a chest x-ray and wait for the results before beginning an assessment.
• D. Inspect the thorax for any new masses and bleeding associated with respirations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is in significant respiratory distress, bilaterally percussing the thorax to note any differences in percussion tones is a crucial nursing intervention. Percussion provides instant feedback regarding changes in underlying tissue density, which can give important clues about the patient's physical status. This hands-on assessment technique is readily available and can be performed promptly. Counting the patient's respirations, while important, may not provide as much detailed information as percussion. Ordering a chest x-ray and waiting for the results can cause a delay in assessing and addressing the patient's immediate needs. Inspecting the thorax for new masses and bleeding, although relevant, may not offer as much real-time information about the patient's condition compared to percussion.

3. The client is a chronic carrier of infection. To prevent the spread of the infection to other clients or healthcare providers, the nurse emphasizes interventions that do which of the following? (Berman & Snyder, 2012, p. 713)

• A. Eliminate the reservoir
• B. Block the portal of exit from the reservoir
• C. Block the portal of entry into the host
• D. Decrease the susceptibility of the host

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent the spread of infection from a chronic carrier, the nurse should focus on blocking the portal of exit from the reservoir, which is the carrier person. By preventing the movement of the organism from the reservoir, the infection can be contained. Eliminating the reservoir is not feasible in this case as the carrier is a chronic carrier. Blocking the portal of entry into the host or decreasing the susceptibility of the host would only impact individual prevention and not the spread from the carrier to others.

4. During an assessment, a nurse asks a patient, "If you had fever and vomiting for 3 days, what would you do?"? Which aspect of the mental status examination is the nurse assessing?

• A. Behavior
• B. Cognition
• C. Affect and mood
• D. Perceptual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is assessing cognition in this scenario. Cognition involves evaluating a patient's judgment and decision-making abilities. By asking the patient what they would do in a specific situation, the nurse aims to determine the patient's cognitive function. A correct response indicating intact cognition would involve a decision like 'Call my doctor.' If the patient suggests inappropriate actions like 'I would stop eating' or 'I would just wait and see what happened,' it would suggest impaired judgment. The other options, behavior, affect and mood, and perceptual disturbances, refer to different aspects of the mental status examination and are not directly assessed through this question.

5. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

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