which of the following questions must the nurse ask when formulating a nursing diagnosis
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. What question must the nurse ask when formulating a nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When formulating a nursing diagnosis, the nurse should focus on identifying the client's specific health problems that can be addressed through nursing interventions. The correct answer emphasizes the nurse's role in identifying and addressing client-specific issues through nursing care. Choice A is incorrect because nursing diagnoses are distinct from medical diagnoses made by physicians. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on physician orders rather than the nurse's role in diagnosing and addressing client problems. Choice D is incorrect because it pertains to identifying underlying diseases, which is not the primary focus of nursing diagnoses.

2. Asepsis is defined as ________________.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asepsis is defined as the absence of disease-causing germs. It is surgical asepsis that is defined as the absence of all microorganisms, including spores. A pathogenic infection is an invasion of the body by a pathogen, or disease-causing germ, and a urinary infection is only one type of infection.

3. Is it true that Hepatitis C virus (HCV) can be spread through hugging, sneezing, coughing, sharing eating utensils, and other forms of casual contact?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: False. HCV is not spread through casual contact such as hugging, sneezing, or sharing eating utensils. The correct modes of transmission for HCV include direct contact with human blood through blood transfusions, improperly sterilized needles and syringes, needle sharing, or occasionally through sexual contact. Therefore, the statement is false, making 'False' the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the mode of transmission of HCV.

4. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

5. While caring for a client in labor, a nurse attaches an electronic fetal monitor to the client's abdomen to assess the baby's heart rate. The nurse observes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction and does not return to normal limits until after the contraction is complete. What type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are characterized by the baby's heart rate declining in utero during contractions. The heart rate drops below baseline and stays low until after the contraction ends. Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can compromise fetal oxygenation. This pattern is a non-reassuring sign and requires immediate intervention. Variable decelerations are typically abrupt decreases in heart rate, often associated with cord compression. Early decelerations, on the other hand, mirror the contractions and are considered benign, resulting from fetal head compression. Accelerations are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, indicating a responsive and healthy fetal nervous system.

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