Nursing Elites

1. What question must the nurse ask when formulating a nursing diagnosis?

• A. What diagnosis did the physician make for this client?
• B. What is the issue that I can solve for this client?
• C. What physician orders will resolve this issue?
• D. What underlying disease does this client have?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When formulating a nursing diagnosis, the nurse should focus on identifying the client's specific health problems that can be addressed through nursing interventions. The correct answer emphasizes the nurse's role in identifying and addressing client-specific issues through nursing care. Choice A is incorrect because nursing diagnoses are distinct from medical diagnoses made by physicians. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on physician orders rather than the nurse's role in diagnosing and addressing client problems. Choice D is incorrect because it pertains to identifying underlying diseases, which is not the primary focus of nursing diagnoses.

2. A client is refusing to undergo any more treatments in the hospital and wants to leave against medical advice. When the nurse requests the client to sign an AMA order, the client refuses and leaves. What is the next action of the nurse?

• A. Call security to hold the client until he signs the order
• B. Notify the physician to convince the client to stay
• C. Speak with the client's spouse to persuade him to stay
• D. Allow the client to leave and document the refusal in his chart

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse cannot force the client to stay in the hospital to receive treatment or to sign an AMA order. It is essential to respect the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity. While involving security or pressuring the client through the physician or spouse may seem like options, they are not appropriate in this situation. The nurse should allow the client to leave if they are competent to make that decision, document the refusal in the client's chart to ensure all actions are appropriately documented, and follow institutional policies for patients leaving against medical advice.

3. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Delirium
• B. Muscle rigidity
• C. Hypotension
• D. Pinpoint rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

4. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
• B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
• C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
• D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.

5. Which of the following statements best describes compartment syndrome?

• A. An injury causes pain and tingling that starts in the buttock and travels down the leg.
• B. An injury causes swelling within muscle tissue that leads to anoxia of nerves and muscles.
• C. An injury causes permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint, resulting in deformity.
• D. An injury causes pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Compartment syndrome is characterized by swelling and increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to nerves and muscles. This can result from various causes, such as trauma or the application of a cast after a fracture. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to tissue necrosis. Choice A is incorrect as pain and tingling starting in the buttock and traveling down the leg are not specific features of compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint is unrelated to compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve do not describe compartment syndrome.

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