Nursing Elites

1. What does the 'B' in the SBAR acronym stand for?

• A. Background
• B. Basic
• C. Beginning
• D. Break

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 'B' in the SBAR acronym stands for Background. SBAR is a standardized communication tool used in healthcare to effectively communicate critical information. In this context, 'Background' refers to providing relevant information about the patient's history, current status, and any other pertinent details. This information helps ensure clear and concise communication between healthcare providers, enhancing patient care. Choice B, 'Basic,' is incorrect as the 'B' specifically emphasizes the detailed background information. Choices C and D, 'Beginning' and 'Break,' are not accurate in the context of the SBAR communication tool.

2. What does an anti-kickback statute prevent?

• A. It prevents healthcare workers from providing food or hosting parties to celebrate special occasions at work.
• B. It promotes thorough and complete documentation when a client becomes injured.
• C. It forbids giving or accepting gifts to promote or provide referrals for certain services.
• D. It prevents physicians from ordering treatments that may require nursing care beyond the usual amount.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An anti-kickback statute aims to prevent healthcare providers, clients, consultants, or related organizations from giving or accepting gifts to reward others for referrals of certain services. Choice A is incorrect because providing food or hosting parties at work is not the primary focus of anti-kickback statutes. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains more to documentation practices rather than gift-giving. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to the scope of physician orders and nursing care, not gift exchanges for referrals. The correct answer, as stated, aligns with the purpose of anti-kickback statutes to prevent improper incentives in healthcare relationships.

3. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?

• A. The client is pregnant
• B. The client has hypertension
• C. The client is in renal failure
• D. The client has pancreatitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.

4. You are creating a teaching plan for a patient with newly diagnosed migraine headaches. Which key item should NOT be included in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods that contain tyramine, such as alcohol and aged cheese.
• B. Avoid drugs such as Tagamet, nitroglycerin, and Nifedipine.
• C. Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician.
• D. A potential side effect of medications is rebound headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician. Medications such as estrogen supplements may actually trigger a migraine headache attack. Fluctuations in estrogen, such as before or during menstrual periods, pregnancy, and menopause, seem to trigger headaches in many women. Choices A and B are important to include in the teaching plan for a patient with migraines as avoiding foods containing tyramine and certain drugs can help prevent migraine triggers. Choice D is also relevant as it is essential for the patient to be aware of potential side effects of medications, including rebound headaches.

5. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?

• A. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
• B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
• C. The infant likely has only one testis.
• D. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.

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