Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following measures would be appropriate for a nurse to teach the parent of a nine-month-old infant about diaper dermatitis?

• A. Use only cloth diapers that are rinsed in bleach
• B. Do not use occlusive ointments on the rash
• C. Use commercial baby wipes with each diaper change
• D. Discontinue a new food that was added to the infant's diet just prior to the rash

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diaper dermatitis can be caused by various factors, one of which includes introducing new foods to the infant's diet. Discontinuing the new food that was added just before the rash can help identify and eliminate the potential cause. Options A and C are not directly related to addressing the cause of diaper dermatitis. While using cloth diapers rinsed in bleach may be a preventive measure for diaper dermatitis, it is not addressing a specific cause. Option B, advising against using occlusive ointments on the rash, may actually be beneficial in managing diaper dermatitis, but it does not address the cause of the condition.

2. The nurse is caring for a newborn with a suspected diagnosis of imperforate anus. The nurse monitors the infant, knowing that which is a clinical manifestation associated with this disorder?

• A. Bile-stained fecal emesis
• B. The passage of currant jelly-like stools
• C. Failure to pass meconium stool in the first 24 hours after birth
• D. Sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Imperforate anus is the incomplete development or absence of the anus in its normal position in the perineum. Failure to pass meconium stool within the first 24 hours after birth is a key clinical manifestation associated with this disorder. This finding should prompt further assessment to confirm the suspected diagnosis. Other assessment findings in imperforate anus may include absence or stenosis of the anal rectal canal, presence of an anal membrane, and an external fistula to the perineum. Options A, B, and D describe findings typically noted in intussusception, a different condition characterized by bowel obstruction and telescoping of the intestines that can present with bile-stained fecal emesis, the passage of currant jelly-like stools, and a sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant.

3. Which information about a 60-year-old patient with MS indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the prescribed dose of dalfampridine (Ampyra)?

• A. The patient has relapsing-remitting MS
• B. The patient walks a mile a day for exercise
• C. The patient complains of pain with neck flexion
• D. The patient has an increased serum creatinine level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has an increased serum creatinine level. Dalfampridine should not be given to patients with impaired renal function as it can worsen their condition. Options A, B, and C are unrelated to the administration of dalfampridine. The fact that the patient has relapsing-remitting MS, walks for exercise, or experiences neck pain does not directly impact the decision to administer dalfampridine. However, an increased serum creatinine level is a contraindication for this medication and requires consultation with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.

4. What should the nurse in the emergency department do first for a new patient who is vomiting blood?

• A. Insert a large-gauge IV catheter.
• B. Draw blood for coagulation studies.
• C. Check blood pressure (BP), heart rate, and respirations.
• D. Place the patient in the supine position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's initial action should focus on assessing the patient's hemodynamic status by checking vital signs like blood pressure, heart rate, and respirations. This assessment will help determine the patient's immediate needs and guide further interventions. Drawing blood for coagulation studies and inserting an IV catheter are important steps, but they can follow the initial assessment of vital signs. Placing the patient in the supine position can be risky without first assessing the patient's vital signs, as aspiration is a concern. Therefore, assessing vital signs is the priority to ensure appropriate and timely care for the patient.

5. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?

• A. 60 microdrops/minute
• B. 20 microdrops/minute
• C. 30 microdrops/minute
• D. 40 microdrops/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

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