Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following measures would be appropriate for a nurse to teach the parent of a nine-month-old infant about diaper dermatitis?

• A. Use only cloth diapers that are rinsed in bleach
• B. Do not use occlusive ointments on the rash
• C. Use commercial baby wipes with each diaper change
• D. Discontinue a new food that was added to the infant's diet just prior to the rash

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diaper dermatitis can be caused by various factors, one of which includes introducing new foods to the infant's diet. Discontinuing the new food that was added just before the rash can help identify and eliminate the potential cause. Options A and C are not directly related to addressing the cause of diaper dermatitis. While using cloth diapers rinsed in bleach may be a preventive measure for diaper dermatitis, it is not addressing a specific cause. Option B, advising against using occlusive ointments on the rash, may actually be beneficial in managing diaper dermatitis, but it does not address the cause of the condition.

2. During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?

• A. ''I get dizzy when I get out of bed.''
• B. ''I'm urinating much more than I used to.''
• C. ''I've been running on the treadmill for 10 minutes each day.''
• D. ''I can't get rid of this cough.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recently had a successful catheter ablation. Which assessment finding demonstrates a successful outcome of this procedure?

• A. The patient is free of electrolyte imbalances
• B. The patient's WBC count is within normal limits
• C. The patient's EKG reading is regular
• D. The patient's urine output is 45 mL/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A successful outcome of a catheter ablation procedure for arrhythmias, particularly SVT, is indicated by a regular EKG reading. Catheter ablation involves the use of radiofrequency energy to destroy the conduction fiber in the heart responsible for the arrhythmia. This destruction helps in preventing further episodes of arrhythmia. While choices A, B, and D are important assessments in patient care, they are not specific indicators of the success of a catheter ablation procedure. Electrolyte imbalances, WBC count, and urine output can be affected by various factors and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a catheter ablation in treating arrhythmias.

4. When taking the blood pressure (BP) on the right arm of a patient with severe acute pancreatitis, the nurse notices carpal spasms of the patient's right hand. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Ask the patient about any arm pain.
• B. Retake the patient's blood pressure.
• C. Check the calcium level in the chart.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse observed carpal spasms in the patient's right hand, indicating a positive Trousseau's sign, which is associated with hypocalcemia. Patients with acute pancreatitis are at risk for hypocalcemia, hence the nurse should promptly check the calcium level in the chart to assess the patient's condition. Notifying the healthcare provider comes after confirming the calcium level. There is no indication to ask about arm pain or to retake the blood pressure, as the primary concern is addressing the potential hypocalcemia.

5. While caring for the client during the first hour after delivery, the nurse determines that the uterus is boggy and there is vaginal bleeding. What should be the nurse's first action?

• A. Check vital signs.
• B. Massage the fundus.
• C. Offer a bedpan.
• D. Check for perineal lacerations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's first action should be to massage the fundus until it is firm as uterine atony is the primary cause of bleeding in the first hour after delivery. Massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions, which can help control the bleeding. Checking vital signs would be important but addressing the primary cause of bleeding takes precedence. Offering a bedpan is not a priority in this situation as the focus should be on managing the postpartum bleeding. Checking for perineal lacerations is also important but not the initial action needed to address the boggy uterus and vaginal bleeding.

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