NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. Which of the following measures would be appropriate for a nurse to teach the parent of a nine-month-old infant about diaper dermatitis?
- A. Use only cloth diapers that are rinsed in bleach
- B. Do not use occlusive ointments on the rash
- C. Use commercial baby wipes with each diaper change
- D. Discontinue a new food that was added to the infant's diet just prior to the rash
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diaper dermatitis can be caused by various factors, one of which includes introducing new foods to the infant's diet. Discontinuing the new food that was added just before the rash can help identify and eliminate the potential cause. Options A and C are not directly related to addressing the cause of diaper dermatitis. While using cloth diapers rinsed in bleach may be a preventive measure for diaper dermatitis, it is not addressing a specific cause. Option B, advising against using occlusive ointments on the rash, may actually be beneficial in managing diaper dermatitis, but it does not address the cause of the condition.
2. During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute, and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to:
- A. Increase fluids that are high in protein
- B. Restrict fluids
- C. Force fluids and reassess blood pressure
- D. Limit fluids to non-caffeine beverages
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client with cardiomyopathy is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension, which is characterized by a significant drop in systolic blood pressure (>15 mm Hg) and an increase in heart rate (>15%), along with dizziness. These symptoms suggest volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency. The appropriate nursing intervention in this case is to force fluids and reassess blood pressure to address the underlying issue of volume depletion and improve hemodynamic stability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluids high in protein, restricting fluids, or limiting fluids to non-caffeine beverages are not appropriate actions for a client experiencing orthostatic hypotension and signs of volume depletion.
3. A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is not correct?
- A. Scarlet fever is caused by infection with group A Streptococcus bacteria.
- B. "Strawberry tongue"? is a characteristic sign.
- C. Petechiae occur on the soft palate.
- D. The pharynx is red and swollen.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Petechiae on the soft palate are not a typical finding in scarlet fever. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria, often presenting with a strawberry tongue, red and swollen pharynx, and a sandpaper-like rash. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is more commonly associated with conditions like rubella rather than scarlet fever. Therefore, this description is not correct in the context of scarlet fever.
4. While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the saline infusion immediately
- B. Notify the physician
- C. Elevate the patient's legs
- D. Continue the infusion, as these findings are normal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.
5. When orally administering alendronate (Fosamax), a bisphosphonate drug, to a largely bed-bound patient being treated for osteoporosis, what is the most important nursing consideration?
- A. Sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration
- B. Give the patient a small amount of water to drink
- C. Feed the patient soon, at most 10 minutes after administration
- D. Assess the patient for back pain or abdominal pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing consideration when administering bisphosphonates like alendronate is to sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration. Bisphosphonates are known to cause esophageal irritation, which can lead to esophagitis. By sitting upright, the patient reduces the time the medication spends in the esophagus, decreasing the risk of irritation and potential adverse effects. Giving the patient water to drink or feeding them immediately after administration can increase the risk of esophageal irritation. Assessing the patient for back pain or abdominal pain is important but not the most critical consideration during drug administration.
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