NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Administer bicarbonate.
- B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
- C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
- D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with metabolic alkalosis and an O2 saturation of 94%, placing the patient on high-flow oxygen is the correct action. Even though the O2 saturation seems adequate, metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. Therefore, providing high-flow oxygen can help compensate for this. Administering bicarbonate would exacerbate the alkalosis. While completing a head-to-toe assessment and obtaining repeat ABGs are important interventions, the priority in this scenario is to improve oxygen delivery by placing the patient on high-flow oxygen.
2. Which of the following clients is most appropriate for receiving telemetry?
- A. A client with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia
- B. A client with unstable angina
- C. A client with sinus rhythm and PVCs
- D. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Telemetry is used to monitor the cardiac rhythms of clients with potentially unstable conditions or those rhythms that affect activities. Clients with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia require continuous monitoring to detect any potential life-threatening dysrhythmias. Unstable angina can be monitored in a telemetry unit, but syncope with potential cardiac causes takes precedence. Clients with sinus rhythm and PVCs may not necessitate telemetry unless there are further indications of instability. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago is typically monitored in an intensive care unit rather than a telemetry unit.
3. Mr. L was working in his garage at home and had an accident with a power saw. He is brought into the emergency department by a neighbor with a traumatic hand amputation. What is the first action of the nurse?
- A. Place a tourniquet at the level of the elbow
- B. Apply direct pressure to the injury
- C. Administer a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline
- D. Elevate the injured extremity on a pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply direct pressure to the injury. When a client presents with traumatic hand amputation causing excessive bleeding, the immediate goal is to control the bleeding. Applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing helps to stem the flow of blood and stabilize the patient. Placing a tourniquet at the level of the elbow should be avoided initially as it may lead to further complications such as tissue damage. Administering a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline is not the priority in this situation where hemorrhage control is crucial. Elevating the injured extremity on a pillow does not address the primary concern of controlling the bleeding and stabilizing the patient.
4. Which of the following measures would be appropriate for a nurse to teach the parent of a nine-month-old infant about diaper dermatitis?
- A. Use only cloth diapers that are rinsed in bleach
- B. Do not use occlusive ointments on the rash
- C. Use commercial baby wipes with each diaper change
- D. Discontinue a new food that was added to the infant's diet just prior to the rash
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diaper dermatitis can be caused by various factors, one of which includes introducing new foods to the infant's diet. Discontinuing the new food that was added just before the rash can help identify and eliminate the potential cause. Options A and C are not directly related to addressing the cause of diaper dermatitis. While using cloth diapers rinsed in bleach may be a preventive measure for diaper dermatitis, it is not addressing a specific cause. Option B, advising against using occlusive ointments on the rash, may actually be beneficial in managing diaper dermatitis, but it does not address the cause of the condition.
5. Which entry in the medical record best meets the requirement for problem-oriented charting?
- A. "A: Pacing and muttering to self. P: Sensory perceptual alteration, related to internal auditory stimulation. I: Given fluphenazine (Prolixin) 2.5 mg at 0900, and went to room to lie down. E: Calmer by 0930. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
- B. "S: States, 'I feel like I'm ready to blow up.' O: Pacing hall, mumbling to self. A: Auditory hallucinations. P: Offer haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg . I: (Haldol) 2 mg at 0900. E: Returned to lounge at 0930 and quietly watched TV."?
- C. "Agitated behavior. D: Patient muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. A: Given haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg and went to room to lie down. E: Patient calmer. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
- D. "Pacing hall and muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg administered at 0900 with calming effect in 30 minutes. Stated, 'I'm no longer bothered by the voices.'"?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Problem-oriented documentation uses the first letter of key words to organize data: S for subjective data, O for objective data, A for assessment, P for plan, I for intervention, and E for evaluation. The correct answer demonstrates problem-oriented charting by following this structure. Choice A, C, and D do not follow the problem-oriented charting format and instead offer examples of different documentation styles such as PIE charting, focus documentation, and narrative documentation, respectively. Therefore, choice B is the best example of problem-oriented charting among the options provided.
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