Nursing Elites

1. A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer bicarbonate.
• B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
• C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
• D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with metabolic alkalosis and an O2 saturation of 94%, placing the patient on high-flow oxygen is the correct action. Even though the O2 saturation seems adequate, metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. Therefore, providing high-flow oxygen can help compensate for this. Administering bicarbonate would exacerbate the alkalosis. While completing a head-to-toe assessment and obtaining repeat ABGs are important interventions, the priority in this scenario is to improve oxygen delivery by placing the patient on high-flow oxygen.

2. The nurse is caring for a newborn with a suspected diagnosis of imperforate anus. The nurse monitors the infant, knowing that which is a clinical manifestation associated with this disorder?

• A. Bile-stained fecal emesis
• B. The passage of currant jelly-like stools
• C. Failure to pass meconium stool in the first 24 hours after birth
• D. Sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Imperforate anus is the incomplete development or absence of the anus in its normal position in the perineum. Failure to pass meconium stool within the first 24 hours after birth is a key clinical manifestation associated with this disorder. This finding should prompt further assessment to confirm the suspected diagnosis. Other assessment findings in imperforate anus may include absence or stenosis of the anal rectal canal, presence of an anal membrane, and an external fistula to the perineum. Options A, B, and D describe findings typically noted in intussusception, a different condition characterized by bowel obstruction and telescoping of the intestines that can present with bile-stained fecal emesis, the passage of currant jelly-like stools, and a sausage-shaped mass palpated in the upper right abdominal quadrant.

3. A patient has been taking mood stabilizing medication but is afraid of needles. They ask the nurse what medication would NOT require regular lab testing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Valproic Acid (Depakote)
• B. Clozapine (Clozaril)
• C. Lithium
• D. Risperidone (Risperdal)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Risperidone (Risperdal) because it is the only medication among the options that does not require regular lab testing. Risperidone is not associated with the need for routine blood draws to monitor medication levels or potential side effects. Choices A, B, and C (Valproic Acid, Clozapine, Lithium) are all known to require frequent lab monitoring due to various reasons such as potential toxicity, therapeutic drug levels, or adverse effects on certain organ functions. Therefore, considering the patient's fear of needles and the desire to avoid frequent blood tests, Risperidone would be the most suitable option.

4. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction.
• B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
• C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
• D. Nephrotic syndrome.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.

5. When supporting the psychosocial needs of a client experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Read the client's discharge instructions well in advance of dismissal
• B. Provide medications to reduce nausea and vomiting
• C. Give simple instructions about self-care while in the hospital
• D. Determine the levels of support from significant others

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, addressing their psychosocial needs is crucial. One effective intervention is to determine the levels of support from significant others. This involves assessing the family, spouse, or friends who can provide help and support to the client when healthcare providers are not present. By identifying and organizing these resources, the nurse can help alleviate fears about the future, prepare caregivers for the client's needs, and facilitate a smoother transition for the client upon discharge. Reading discharge instructions, providing medications, or giving self-care instructions, although important, do not directly address the psychosocial needs of the client during this challenging time.

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