Nursing Elites

1. What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?

• A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions.
• B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness.
• C. Abnormal results should be followed by additional testing.
• D. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.

2. The patient with migraine headaches has a seizure. After the seizure, which action can you delegate to the nursing assistant?

• A. Document the seizure
• B. Perform neurologic checks
• C. Take the patient's vital signs
• D. Restrain the patient for protection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a patient with migraine headaches has a seizure, it is important to assess their vital signs to monitor their condition. This task can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant as it falls within their scope of practice. Documenting the seizure and performing neurologic checks require a higher level of training and should be done by a nurse or healthcare provider. Restraint should never be used as a first-line intervention after a seizure unless there is an immediate threat to the patient's safety, and it should be done following proper protocols and with appropriate training.

3. Mr. Thomas is a well-groomed 68-year-old male patient who had prostate surgery two days ago. He has an indwelling catheter and a urinary drainage bag. You have weighed him at 9 am each morning for 3 mornings in a row. Today, on the 4th day, his morning weight is 3 pounds more than it was the day before. Why could he have gained these 3 pounds in one day, on a 1000 calorie diet?

• A. It is obvious that his visitors have been sneaking him junk food from the local fast-food restaurant.
• B. It may be that his urinary drainage bag was not emptied today and it was emptied on previous days.
• C. It is obvious that the scale is broken and it should be replaced immediately to prevent these false weights.
• D. A 3-pound weight gain is not significant enough to question and should just be noted.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the weight gain may be due to the urinary drainage bag not being emptied today, while it was emptied on previous days. This scenario is common and can lead to an increase in weight that is not related to food intake. Choice A is incorrect because assuming visitors are sneaking junk food is speculative and not based on facts. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest the scale is broken. Choice D is incorrect because any unexplained weight gain should be investigated further, even if it seems insignificant at first.

4. A patient with Parkinson's disease is experiencing difficulty swallowing. What potential problem associated with dysphagia has the greatest influence on the plan of care?

• A. Anorexia
• B. Aspiration
• C. Self-care deficit
• D. Inadequate intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a person experiences dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), the greatest concern is aspiration. Aspiration occurs when food or fluids enter the trachea and lungs instead of going down the esophagus. This can lead to serious complications such as choking, airway obstruction, and aspiration pneumonia. Anorexia (Choice A) refers to a loss of appetite, which is not the primary concern with dysphagia. Self-care deficit (Choice C) and inadequate intake (Choice D) are important considerations but do not have as direct an impact on the immediate safety and health risks associated with aspiration in dysphagia.

5. A patient's urine tests positive for glucose. The doctor asks you to confirm this finding. Which of the following would BEST confirm this finding?

• A. Run the urine on the hand-held glucometer.
• B. Have another MA perform a repeat dipstick test.
• C. Run a Clinitest.
• D. Run an Acetest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To confirm glucosuria, the most appropriate method is to run a Clinitest. Clinitest tablets are specifically designed to detect glucose in urine samples. This test is particularly useful when the urine is discolored, making it challenging to accurately assess the color change.\n Choice A, using a hand-held glucometer, is not the standard method for confirming glucose in urine; these devices are primarily used for blood glucose monitoring.\n Choice B, having another Medical Assistant perform a repeat dipstick test, may not provide a more definitive confirmation as dipstick tests can sometimes yield false positives or be less accurate compared to other methods like the Clinitest.\n Choice D, running an Acetest, is used to detect ketones in the urine, not glucose. Ketones are typically associated with conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis, which is different from glucosuria.

Similar Questions