NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Prep
1. You are taking care of 7 patients today. One of your residents wants water; another needs help walking to the bathroom; another just stated that they have chest pain; and another is crying because his daughter did not visit him today. Which patient care task is the lowest in terms of priority?
- A. The water
- B. Help to the bathroom
- C. The chest pain
- D. The crying person
Correct answer: D: The crying person
Rationale: The lowest priority patient care task in this scenario is addressing the emotional need of the patient who is crying because his daughter did not visit him today. While emotional support is important, the other needs - providing water, assisting to the bathroom, and addressing chest pain - are physical needs that must take priority as they directly impact the patient's well-being and health. It is crucial to acknowledge and address emotional needs but in this situation, the physical needs of the patients should be addressed first.
2. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Abdominal tenderness
- C. Left upper quadrant pain
- D. Palpable abdominal mass
Correct answer: Palpable abdominal mass
Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.
3. A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?
- A. compound fracture of the fibula
- B. a partial break in a long bone
- C. fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist
- D. Colles fracture of the tibia
Correct answer: a partial break in a long bone
Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.
4. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.8 mL
- C. 1.25 mL
- D. 2.0 mL
Correct answer: 0.8 mL
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose × Volume on hand) / Dose on hand). In this case, it would be (4 mg × 1 mL) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it miscalculates the dosage. Choice C (1.25 mL) and Choice D (2.0 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the ordered dose and available concentration. The correct answer, 0.8 mL, is derived from accurate dosage calculation and aligns with the formula for IV medication administration, ensuring the safe and effective delivery of the medication to the client.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The patient complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any kind. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?
- A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.
- B. Fluid overload leading to compression of nerve tissue.
- C. Sensation distortion due to psychiatric disturbance.
- D. Inflammation of the skin on the hands and feet.
Correct answer: Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.
Rationale: Patients with the peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of inadequate tissue perfusion. Ischemic rest pain is more worrisome; it refers to pain in the extremity that is due to a combination of PVD and inadequate perfusion. Ischemic rest pain often is exacerbated by poor cardiac output. The condition is often partially or fully relieved by placing the extremity in a dependent position, so that perfusion is enhanced by the effects of gravity.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions and answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX Coverage
- 90 days access @ $69.99