Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old child for symptoms of autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Which assessment finding should lead the nurse to question the diagnosis?

• A. Inability to react appropriately to social cues
• B. Engages in repetitive behaviors
• C. Comprehends language well beyond the complexity expected for age
• D. Displays self-destructive behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Comprehends language well beyond the complexity expected for age.' Children with autism spectrum disorder typically struggle with language and communication skills, so comprehending language well beyond their age level would not align with the diagnosis of ASD. This finding could indicate other developmental strengths or delays. Choices A, B, and D are more commonly associated with ASD - the inability to react appropriately to social cues, engaging in repetitive behaviors, and displaying self-destructive behavior are typical manifestations of autism spectrum disorder.

2. A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.

3. What ethical principle has led to the need for informed consent?

• A. Autonomy
• B. Justice
• C. Fidelity
• D. Beneficence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomy is the ethical principle that emphasizes an individual's right to make their own decisions if they are mentally competent. Informed consent is a direct result of this principle, as it ensures that patients are fully informed before agreeing to any medical intervention. Autonomy is crucial in healthcare as it respects patients' rights and promotes self-determination. Justice, fidelity, and beneficence are important ethical principles in healthcare, but they do not directly lead to the need for informed consent. Justice focuses on fairness and equal treatment, fidelity on trustworthiness and loyalty, and beneficence on doing good for the patient's benefit.

4. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

5. Who owns a patient's x-rays?

• A. The patient
• B. The doctor
• C. The facility that performed the procedure
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: X-rays are typically owned by the facility that conducts the procedure, not the patient or the doctor. The facility that performs the procedure is responsible for maintaining and storing the x-rays as part of the patient's medical records. The patient does not own the x-rays since they are part of their medical record and not a physical possession. The doctor also does not own the x-rays as they are generated as a result of the medical procedure conducted at the facility, making choice C the correct answer.

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