Nursing Elites

1. Albert is a patient in the hospital who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. After the pre-operative visit from the anesthesia staff member who has obtained surgical consent, Albert asks for an explanation of what type of surgery he is going to have. He states that he's not sure what he just signed. What is your best response?

• A. Don't worry, they'll explain it in the operating room.
• B. It's standard procedure to get the consent; you don't need to worry.
• C. Let me ask the nurse anesthetist to come back and explain it further.
• D. Someone will review it with you prior to surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to ensure that the patient fully understands the nature of the surgery they are about to undergo. If the patient expresses uncertainty about the procedure they signed consent for, it indicates a lack of informed consent, which is essential before any surgery. By requesting the nurse anesthetist to return and provide a more detailed explanation, the patient can make an informed decision. Choices A, B, and D do not address the issue of the patient's lack of understanding and the need for informed consent, making them incorrect. Option C is the best course of action to rectify the situation and ensure the patient's understanding and consent are properly obtained.

2. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
• B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
• C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
• D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.

3. A nurse is caring for a 3-day old infant who needs an exchange transfusion. Which of the following statements is appropriate for teaching the child's parents about this procedure?

• A. The registered nurse will be performing the procedure
• B. The procedure takes approximately 1 ? hours.
• C. The nurse will draw out 250cc of blood and then immediately replace it with 250cc
• D. The infant will continue to receive phototherapy during the procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: : An exchange transfusion is a method of controlling high bilirubin levels in infants when traditional phototherapy is unsuccessful. During an exchange transfusion, the physician removes 5-10 cc of blood and then replaces it with donor blood. The parents of this infant should know that the procedure is always performed by a physician and will take approximately 1 � hours to complete.

4. Which information given by a 70-year-old patient during a health history indicates to the nurse that the patient should be screened for hepatitis C?

• A. The patient had a blood transfusion in 2005
• B. The patient used IV drugs about 20 years ago
• C. The patient frequently eats in fast-food restaurants
• D. The patient traveled to a country with poor sanitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The patient used IV drugs about 20 years ago.' Any patient with a history of IV drug use should be tested for hepatitis C due to the increased risk of transmission through sharing needles. Blood transfusions given after 1992, when an antibody test for hepatitis C became available, do not pose a risk for hepatitis C. Hepatitis C is not spread by the oral-fecal route, so contaminated food or traveling to countries with poor sanitation are not direct risk factors for hepatitis C.

5. A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.

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