Nursing Elites

1. When supporting the psychosocial needs of a client experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Read the client's discharge instructions well in advance of dismissal
• B. Provide medications to reduce nausea and vomiting
• C. Give simple instructions about self-care while in the hospital
• D. Determine the levels of support from significant others

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, addressing their psychosocial needs is crucial. One effective intervention is to determine the levels of support from significant others. This involves assessing the family, spouse, or friends who can provide help and support to the client when healthcare providers are not present. By identifying and organizing these resources, the nurse can help alleviate fears about the future, prepare caregivers for the client's needs, and facilitate a smoother transition for the client upon discharge. Reading discharge instructions, providing medications, or giving self-care instructions, although important, do not directly address the psychosocial needs of the client during this challenging time.

2. A 55-year-old patient admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice and nausea has abnormal liver function studies, but serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Is there any history of IV drug use?
• B. Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?
• C. Are you taking corticosteroids for any reason?
• D. Have you recently traveled to a foreign country?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask in this scenario is whether the patient uses any over-the-counter drugs. The patient's symptoms, negative serologic testing for viral hepatitis, and sudden onset of symptoms point towards toxic hepatitis, which can be triggered by commonly used over-the-counter medications like acetaminophen (Tylenol). Asking about IV drug use is relevant for viral hepatitis, not toxic hepatitis. Inquiring about recent travel to a foreign country is more pertinent to potential exposure to infectious agents causing viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use is not typically associated with the symptoms described in the case.

3. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse assesses the patient for mental status changes. What is the rationale for this intervention?

• A. Decreased cardiac output can cause hypoxia to the brain
• B. Mental status changes may be a side effect of the patient's medication
• C. Mitral regurgitation is a complication associated with some neurological disorders
• D. The patient may be confused about his diagnosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output, assessing for mental status changes is crucial. Decreased cardiac output can lead to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs, including the brain, resulting in hypoxia. This hypoxia can manifest as mental status changes such as confusion, restlessness, or lethargy. Therefore, monitoring mental status helps in identifying potential hypoxic states and guiding appropriate interventions. The other options are incorrect as they do not directly correlate decreased cardiac output with potential hypoxia-induced mental status changes.

4. An older patient is receiving standard multidrug therapy for tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should notify the health care provider if the patient exhibits which finding?

• A. Yellow-tinged skin
• B. Orange-colored sputum
• C. Thickening of the fingernails
• D. Difficulty hearing high-pitched voices

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Yellow-tinged skin.' Yellow-tinged skin is indicative of noninfectious hepatitis, a toxic effect of isoniazid (INH), rifampin, and pyrazinamide. If a patient on TB therapy develops hepatotoxicity, alternative medications will be necessary. Thickening of fingernails and difficulty hearing high-pitched voices are not typical side effects of the medications used in standard TB therapy. Presbycusis, age-related hearing loss, is common in older adults and not a cause for immediate concern. Orange-colored sputum is an expected side effect of rifampin and does not warrant immediate notification to the healthcare provider.

5. A client using an intraaural hearing aid experiences whistling after placement. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Try to reposition the hearing aid
• B. Change the batteries
• C. Remove the device and have it cleaned
• D. Notify the physician that the hearing aid is not working

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An intraaural hearing aid, also known as an in-the-ear hearing aid, is placed in the ear canal. Whistling after placement indicates improper positioning of the device. The correct action for the nurse is to try repositioning the hearing aid to eliminate the whistling. Changing the batteries is not necessary for addressing whistling. Removing the device to clean it is not the immediate action needed for whistling. Notifying the physician is premature without attempting to reposition the hearing aid first.

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