NCLEX NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The nurse is conducting a health fair for older adults. Which statement is true regarding vital sign measurements in aging adults?
- A. The pulse is easier to palpate due to the rigidity of the blood vessels.
- B. An increased respiratory rate and a shallower inspiratory phase are expected findings.
- C. A widened pulse pressure occurs from changes in the systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
- D. Changes in the body’s temperature regulatory mechanism decrease the older adult’s likelihood of developing a fever.
Correct answer: An increased respiratory rate and a shallower inspiratory phase are expected findings.
Rationale: Aging causes a decrease in vital capacity and decreased inspiratory reserve volume. As a result, the examiner may observe a shallower inspiratory phase and an increased respiratory rate in older adults. Contrary to common belief, the increased rigidity of arterial walls actually makes the pulse easier to palpate in aging adults. Pulse pressure is widened, not decreased, due to changes in systolic and diastolic blood pressures. Furthermore, changes in the body's temperature regulatory mechanism make older individuals less likely to develop a fever but more susceptible to hypothermia.
2. A thirty-five-year-old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
- A. Atherosclerosis
- B. Diabetic nephropathy
- C. Autonomic neuropathy
- D. Somatic neuropathy
Correct answer: Autonomic neuropathy
Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is autonomic neuropathy. Autonomic neuropathy affects the autonomic nerves, which control various bodily functions including the bladder. In diabetes, it can lead to bladder paralysis, resulting in symptoms like urgency to urinate and difficulty initiating urination. Atherosclerosis (choice A) is a condition involving the hardening and narrowing of arteries, not directly related to the inability to urinate in this context. Diabetic nephropathy (choice B) primarily affects the kidneys, leading to kidney damage, but does not typically cause urinary retention. Somatic neuropathy (choice D) involves damage to sensory nerves, not the autonomic nerves responsible for bladder control, making it less likely to be the cause of the urinary issue described in the question.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is post-op day #3 after an abdominal hernia repair. After a bout of harsh coughing, the client states, 'it feels like something gave way.' The nurse assesses his abdomen and notes an evisceration from the surgical site. What is the next action of the nurse?
- A. Turn the client on his side
- B. Push the abdominal contents back inside the wound using sterile gloves
- C. Ask the client to take a breath and hold it
- D. Cover the intestine with sterile saline dressings
Correct answer: Cover the intestine with sterile saline dressings
Rationale: A wound evisceration occurs when the edges of an abdominal wound separate, allowing the coils of the intestine to protrude outside of the body. The nurse should notify the physician at once if this occurs. While waiting for treatment, the nurse should cover the intestines with sterile gauze soaked in saline. Turning the client on his side or asking the client to take a breath and hold it are not appropriate actions in this situation. Pushing the abdominal contents back inside the wound using sterile gloves can lead to infection and is not within the nurse's scope of practice.
4. Which of the following is an example of emotional abuse?
- A. A slap to the person's hand
- B. Threatening the person
- C. Ignoring and isolating a person
- D. Leaving a patient soiled for hours
Correct answer: Threatening the person
Rationale: Emotional abuse involves behaviors that harm an individual's self-worth and emotional well-being. Threatening someone instills fear and causes psychological distress, making it a clear example of emotional abuse. Choices A, C, and D involve physical abuse, neglect, and neglect of care, respectively, rather than emotional abuse. A slap to the person's hand constitutes physical abuse, ignoring and isolating a person is neglectful behavior, and leaving a patient soiled for hours falls under neglect of care.
5. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?
- A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
- B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
- C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
- D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Correct answer: Aripiprazole (Abilify)
Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.
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