Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention should the nurse use for a client who hallucinates, yells, and curses throughout the day?

• A. Ignore the client's behavior if the client is not harming anyone.
• B. Isolate the client until the behavior decreases or stops.
• C. Explain how the behavior affects other people on the unit.
• D. Seek to understand what the behavior means to the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client experiences hallucinations, yells, and curses, it is essential to seek to understand the underlying meaning of their behavior. All behavior has significance, and understanding the client's perspective can guide appropriate interventions. Ignoring the behavior may exacerbate the situation and isolating the client could lead to increased anxiety and further acting out. Explaining the impact on others is not helpful in this scenario as the client is not intentionally hallucinating; yelling and cursing are responses to the hallucinations.

2. A client is being treated for anxiety and desires to be free from anxious feelings and despair. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which level does this client need to meet?

• A. Physiological
• B. Safety
• C. Belonging
• D. Self-esteem

Correct answer: B

Rationale: According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, safety needs come right after physiological needs. Safety needs include feelings of security and stability. When a client is treated for anxiety and seeks to be free from anxious feelings and despair, they are primarily aiming to meet their safety needs. By addressing anxiety and moving towards a sense of safety, the client can progress to addressing higher-level needs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect in this scenario. Physiological needs (Choice A) refer to basic needs like food, water, and shelter. Belonging (Choice C) and self-esteem (Choice D) are higher-level needs in Maslow's hierarchy that come after safety needs. Therefore, the most appropriate level for the client in this case is safety.

3. Before assessing a new patient, a nurse is told by another healthcare worker, "I know that patient. No matter how hard we work, there isn't much improvement by the time of discharge."? The nurse's responsibility is to:

• A. document the other worker's assessment of the patient.
• B. assess the patient based on data collected from all sources.
• C. validate the worker's impression by contacting the patient's significant other.
• D. discuss the worker's impression with the patient during the assessment interview

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient based on data collected from all sources. It is important for the nurse to gather information from various sources to form an objective assessment. Biased assessments by others should be evaluated as objectively as possible by the nurse, considering the potential impact of counter-transference. Documenting the other worker's assessment (Choice A) may be necessary for thorough documentation but should not influence the nurse's independent assessment. Validating the worker's impression by contacting the patient's significant other (Choice C) may not provide an accurate representation of the patient's condition. Discussing the worker's impression with the patient during the assessment interview (Choice D) can introduce bias and may not lead to an objective evaluation.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients before surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications during surgery?

• A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
• B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
• C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
• D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is taking anticoagulants for the past year. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications. It is crucial for the healthcare provider to be aware of this medication. While clients taking birth control pills (option A) may be more prone to developing blood clots, these issues typically arise after surgery. Clients who recently completed antibiotic therapy (option C) or have taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months (option D) are at lower risk compared to those taking anticoagulants (option B) during surgery.

5. At a senior citizens meeting, a healthcare professional talks with a client who has Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the client during the conversation is most predictive of a potential for impaired skin integrity?

• A. ''I give myself insulin injections in my thighs.''
• B. ''Sometimes when I put my shoes on, I don't know where my toes are.''
• C. ''Here are my glucose readings that I noted on my calendar.''
• D. ''If I bathe more than once a week, my skin feels too dry.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is when the client states, ''Sometimes when I put my shoes on, I don't know where my toes are.'' This statement indicates peripheral neuropathy, which can lead to a lack of sensation in the lower extremities. When clients are unable to feel pressure or pain in their feet, they are at a high risk for skin impairment, such as cuts, wounds, or ulcers. Option A is not directly related to impaired skin integrity, as self-administering insulin in the thighs does not pose a direct risk to skin integrity. Option C shows good glucose monitoring, which is important but does not directly indicate impaired skin integrity. Option D suggests dry skin due to infrequent bathing, which is more related to general skin care and not as predictive of impaired skin integrity as the statement in Option B.

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