Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention should the nurse use for a client who hallucinates, yells, and curses throughout the day?

• A. Ignore the client's behavior if the client is not harming anyone.
• B. Isolate the client until the behavior decreases or stops.
• C. Explain how the behavior affects other people on the unit.
• D. Seek to understand what the behavior means to the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client experiences hallucinations, yells, and curses, it is essential to seek to understand the underlying meaning of their behavior. All behavior has significance, and understanding the client's perspective can guide appropriate interventions. Ignoring the behavior may exacerbate the situation and isolating the client could lead to increased anxiety and further acting out. Explaining the impact on others is not helpful in this scenario as the client is not intentionally hallucinating; yelling and cursing are responses to the hallucinations.

2. Which thought process would the nurse document the mental health client is experiencing after the client says, 'The FBI is out to kill me'?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Error in judgment
• C. Delusion of persecution
• D. Self-accusatory delusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would document that the client is experiencing a delusion of persecution. A delusion of persecution is a fixed and firm belief of being harassed, in danger, or at the mercy of others, as illustrated by 'The FBI is out to kill me.' Hallucinations are perceived experiences that occur without actual sensory stimulation. Error in judgment refers to poor decision-making, not a distortion of reality like a delusion. A self-accusatory delusion involves accepting blame for an act that was never committed or a feeling that was never acted on. Therefore, the correct choice is 'Delusion of persecution.'

3. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

• A. I send my child to their bedroom for misbehaving.
• B. We limit time-out to 4 minutes per incident.
• C. Putting my child in a dark closet for time-out is very effective.
• D. I explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining my child.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.

4. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?

• A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
• B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
• C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
• D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.

5. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?

• A. 'At your age, sex isn't that important.''
• B. ''That is a natural occurrence at your age.''
• C. ''You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.''
• D. 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.

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