Nursing Elites

1. After 5 years of unprotected intercourse, a childless couple comes to the fertility clinic. The husband tells the nurse that his parents have promised to make a down payment on a house for them if his wife gets pregnant this year. Which response would the nurse provide?

• A. ''This must be very difficult for you with this added pressure.''
• B. 'Having a child is a decision you should make without your parents' input.''
• C. 'You're lucky. It's nice that your parents are making such a generous offer.''
• D. ''Five years without a pregnancy is a long time. You were right to come to the fertility clinic.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the emotional challenge the couple is facing due to the added pressure of the incentive from the husband's parents. By expressing empathy and understanding, the nurse encourages the couple to open up about their feelings and concerns. Choice B is not the best response as it dismisses the husband's situation and fails to address the emotional impact of the added pressure. Choice C focuses on the parents' offer rather than the couple's emotional state, which is not the primary concern in this situation. Choice D, mentioning the duration of infertility, may come across as insensitive and may hinder open communication by potentially making the couple feel judged or discouraged.

2. When taking a client's blood pressure, the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
• B. Re-inflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
• C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
• D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard while taking a client's blood pressure, the best action is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. Deflating the cuff for this duration allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring an accurate reading on that extremity a second time. Option A of deflating the cuff completely and immediately reattempting the reading could lead to a falsely high reading. Option B, re-inflating the cuff completely and leaving it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds, reduces circulation, causes pain, and may alter the reading. Option D, documenting the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen, is not a reliable method for assessing blood pressure and does not address the issue of obtaining an accurate reading.

3. A client arrives at an occupational health clinic after being struck by lightning while working in a truck bed. The client is alert but reports feeling faint. Which assessment will the nurse perform first?

• A. Pulse characteristics
• B. Open airway
• C. Entrance and exit wounds
• D. Cervical spine injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing pulse characteristics is the priority in this situation due to the potential impact of lightning as a form of electrical current, which can cause irregular heart rhythms. It is crucial to evaluate the pulse rate and regularity to assess for adequate circulation and potential cardiac issues. Since the client is alert and talking, the airway is likely patent, making assessing the airway less urgent. Entrance and exit wounds and cervical spine injury assessments should follow the evaluation of pulse characteristics to ensure proper circulation and prioritize life-threatening issues first. Checking the pulse first will guide further interventions and help in determining the client's hemodynamic status.

4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

5. A client is having difficulty applying for a job due to panic and anxiety. A nurse is helping by pretending to be the job supervisor while the client practices answering questions during an imaginary interview. This technique is an example of:

• A. Reinforcement
• B. Presenting reality
• C. Role playing
• D. Summarizing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Role-playing is the correct answer. It involves practicing appropriate behaviors during imaginary scenarios that simulate real-life situations. In this scenario, the nurse is helping the client prepare for a job interview by acting as the job supervisor. Role-playing allows the client to practice and develop strategies to cope with anxiety and panic during the actual interview. Reinforcement (Choice A) involves providing consequences to strengthen a behavior. Presenting reality (Choice B) involves helping the client differentiate between real and unreal experiences. Summarizing (Choice D) involves condensing information. In this context, role-playing is the most appropriate technique to address the client's anxiety and panic related to job interviews.

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