NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?
- A. Pick's disease
- B. Syphilis
- C. Encephalopathy
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.
2. A client states that she is angry and feels rejected by her boyfriend. Which action would the nurse encourage?
- A. Call the boyfriend to work things out.
- B. Avoid confronting the boyfriend.
- C. Date new people whenever possible.
- D. Learn to constructively vent anger.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to learn to constructively vent anger. Coping mechanisms, such as venting anger, can help the client address feelings of rejection. Calling the boyfriend to work things out is offering unsolicited advice and may not be effective in managing emotions. Avoiding confronting the boyfriend may reduce anxiety temporarily but will not assist in resolving the underlying issues. Encouraging the client to date new people whenever possible is not appropriate at this stage, as it is essential for the client to work through the current crisis before considering new relationships.
3. Which dysfunction of the reproductive system is associated with anorexia nervosa in females?
- A. Galactorrhea
- B. Gynecomastia
- C. Amenorrhea
- D. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Amenorrhea (cessation of menses) is associated with anorexia nervosa in females due to endocrine imbalances resulting from depleted fat stores. Galactorrhea is a milky discharge from the nipples unrelated to normal breast milk production. Gynecomastia is swelling of breast tissue in males. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs about 1 week before menses and includes mood swings, depression, fatigue, bloating, overeating, and difficulty focusing, resolving when menstruation starts. In the context of anorexia nervosa, the primary concern is the disruption of the menstrual cycle due to low body weight, leading to amenorrhea.
4. Which approach would be most appropriate for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy?
- A. Confrontation
- B. Open communication
- C. Health teaching about childrearing
- D. Validation of the child's physical status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate approach for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy is open communication. Maintaining open communication is crucial in building a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Confrontation may cause the parent to become defensive and hinder effective communication. Health teaching about childrearing may not be well-received at this point as the parent may not be ready for it. Validation of the child's physical status may inadvertently reinforce the parent's behavior by focusing solely on physical symptoms rather than addressing the underlying issues.
5. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?
- A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
- B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
- C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
- D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access