NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. Which client is most likely to be at risk for spiritual distress?
- A. Roman Catholic woman considering an abortion
- B. Jewish man considering hospice care for his wife
- C. Seventh-Day Adventist who needs a blood transfusion
- D. Muslim man who needs a total knee replacement
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the Roman Catholic woman considering an abortion. In the Roman Catholic faith, abortion is strictly prohibited, so making a decision regarding abortion can bring about spiritual distress. The Jewish faith does not have restrictions on hospice care. It is Jehovah's Witnesses, not Seventh-Day Adventists, who do not accept blood transfusions due to religious beliefs. Additionally, there are no religious prohibitions against joint replacement in the Muslim faith.
2. When assessing the mental status of a young school-aged child, which action would be important for the nurse to take?
- A. Listen to the parents' description of the child's behavior.
- B. Compare the child's function from one occasion to another.
- C. Engage the parents in a discussion about the child's feelings.
- D. Determine the child's mental status through direct questioning.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To accurately assess the mental status of a young school-aged child, it is crucial for the nurse to compare the child's function over time. This approach allows for a more objective evaluation of the child's mental status. While listening to the parents' description of the child's behavior can provide valuable insights, it may be biased and subjective. Engaging parents in discussions about the child's feelings is important for overall understanding but may not directly assess the child's mental status. Directly questioning the child about their mental status can be threatening and may lead to anxiety, making it a less optimal approach compared to observing and comparing the child's function over time.
3. For which condition would electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) be used?
- A. Severe clinical depression
- B. Substance abuse disorders
- C. Antisocial personality disorder
- D. Psychosis occurring in schizophrenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is indicated for severe clinical depression, especially in cases where clients do not respond well to psychotropic medications or require immediate intervention due to the severity of their depression. ECT is not typically used as a primary treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. While ECT is an effective intervention for severe depression, it is important to consider individual client needs and response to other treatment options before resorting to ECT.
4. In taking a client's history, the nurse asks about the stool characteristics. Which description should the nurse report to the healthcare provider as soon as possible?
- A. Daily black, sticky stool
- B. Daily dark brown stool
- C. Firm brown stool every other day
- D. Soft light brown stool twice a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Daily black, sticky stool.' Black sticky stool (melena) is indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious condition that requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider. Options B and D, 'Daily dark brown stool' and 'Soft light brown stool twice a day,' respectively, represent variations of normal stool characteristics and do not raise immediate concerns about the client's health. Option C, 'Firm brown stool every other day,' suggests constipation, which is of lesser concern and can be managed with interventions.
5. When taking a client's blood pressure, the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
- B. Re-inflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
- C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
- D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard while taking a client's blood pressure, the best action is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. Deflating the cuff for this duration allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring an accurate reading on that extremity a second time. Option A of deflating the cuff completely and immediately reattempting the reading could lead to a falsely high reading. Option B, re-inflating the cuff completely and leaving it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds, reduces circulation, causes pain, and may alter the reading. Option D, documenting the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen, is not a reliable method for assessing blood pressure and does not address the issue of obtaining an accurate reading.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access