NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. Which client is most likely to be at risk for spiritual distress?
- A. Roman Catholic woman considering an abortion
- B. Jewish man considering hospice care for his wife
- C. Seventh-Day Adventist who needs a blood transfusion
- D. Muslim man who needs a total knee replacement
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the Roman Catholic woman considering an abortion. In the Roman Catholic faith, abortion is strictly prohibited, so making a decision regarding abortion can bring about spiritual distress. The Jewish faith does not have restrictions on hospice care. It is Jehovah's Witnesses, not Seventh-Day Adventists, who do not accept blood transfusions due to religious beliefs. Additionally, there are no religious prohibitions against joint replacement in the Muslim faith.
2. Which statement regarding an interpreter is correct?
- A. Relatives or friends of the client cannot serve as interpreters.
- B. The interpreter should aim to convey meaning rather than provide literal translations.
- C. Interpreting not only the language but also the culture is important.
- D. The interpreter should be available only during client-provider communication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that interpreting not only the language but also the culture is important. Health care facilities should provide professional interpreters to ensure accurate communication with clients who do not speak English proficiently. It is crucial for interpreters to understand and convey cultural nuances to prevent misunderstandings. Relatives or friends of the client should not serve as interpreters as they may not be impartial or adequately skilled. Providing literal word-for-word translations is not always effective as it may not capture the intended meaning. Interpreters should be available throughout the client's care process, not just during direct communication, to ensure effective and culturally sensitive care.
3. The emergency room nurse admits a child who experienced a seizure at school. The father comments that this is the first occurrence and denies any family history of epilepsy. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Do not worry. Epilepsy can be treated with medications.
- B. The seizure may or may not mean your child has epilepsy.
- C. Since this was the first convulsion, it may not happen again.
- D. Long-term treatment will prevent future seizures.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is, 'The seizure may or may not mean your child has epilepsy.' There are various potential causes for a childhood seizure, such as fever, central nervous system conditions, trauma, metabolic alterations, and idiopathic reasons. It's essential not to jump to conclusions about epilepsy based on one seizure. Options A, C, and D provide premature or inaccurate information. Option A may give false reassurance without proper evaluation, option C assumes one seizure guarantees no recurrence, and option D oversimplifies treatment outcomes.
4. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
- C. Bipolar disorder
- D. Delusional disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.
5. In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
- B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
- C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
- D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is the responsibility of the surgeon to explain the procedure to the client and obtain the client's signature on the permit. While the nurse can witness the client's signature on the permit, the procedure must first be explained by the healthcare provider or surgeon, including addressing the client's questions. Therefore, informing the surgeon is the priority to ensure proper communication and consent before the surgery. Answering the client's questions about the surgery (Choice B) may not provide accurate information and could lead to misunderstanding. Reassuring the client (Choice D) is important, but obtaining proper consent and addressing concerns should come first. Witnessing the client's signature (Choice A) is not sufficient if the client has unanswered questions and the permit is not signed.
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