NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension?
- A. 45-year-old African-American attorney
- B. 60-year-old Asian-American shop owner
- C. 40-year-old Caucasian nurse
- D. 55-year-old Hispanic teacher
Correct answer: A
Rationale: African-Americans have a higher risk of developing hypertension compared to other ethnic groups. They tend to develop high blood pressure at younger ages and are more sensitive to salt, which increases their risk of hypertension. Additionally, studies have shown that African-Americans may respond differently to hypertensive drugs. Therefore, the 45-year-old African-American attorney is at the greatest risk for developing hypertension. The other choices do not specify factors that put them at a higher risk for hypertension compared to African-Americans.
2. A 20-year-old female attending college is found unconscious in her dorm room. She has a fever and a noticeable rash. She has just been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
- A. Blood sugar check
- B. CT scan
- C. Blood cultures
- D. Arterial blood gases
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most likely test to be performed first in this scenario is blood cultures. Blood cultures are crucial to investigate the fever and rash symptoms in an unconscious patient. This test is used to detect foreign invaders like bacteria, yeast, and other microorganisms in the blood, which could indicate a blood infection (bacteremia). A positive blood culture result confirms the presence of bacteria in the blood. A blood sugar check (choice A) may be important but is less likely to be the first test in this context. A CT scan (choice B) and arterial blood gases (choice D) are generally not the initial tests performed to investigate a fever and rash with altered mental status.
3. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?
- A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
- B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
- C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
- D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the groin area (Choice A) is not recommended as it will not help in the resolution of the hydrocele. Referral to a surgeon (Choice B) is not necessary at this stage since hydroceles often resolve on their own in infants. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position (Choice D) does not aid in the reabsorption of fluid and is not a recommended intervention for hydrocele management.
4. A nurse has just started her rounds delivering medication. A new patient on her rounds is a 4-year-old boy who is non-verbal. This child does not have any identification on. What should the nurse do?
- A. Contact the provider
- B. Ask the child to write their name on paper
- C. Ask a coworker about the identification of the child
- D. Ask the father who is in the room the child's name
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When encountering a non-verbal child without identification, it is appropriate for the nurse to ask the accompanying parent or guardian for the child's name. The father, being present in the room, can provide the necessary information. This ensures accurate identification to deliver the correct medication. Contacting the provider may cause unnecessary delays. Asking a non-verbal child to write their name is not feasible. Asking a coworker may not provide reliable identification as they may not have direct knowledge.
5. The mother of a child with hepatitis A tells the home care nurse that she is concerned because the child's jaundice seems worse. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. You need to change the child's diet.
- B. The child probably is infectious again.
- C. The jaundice may worsen before it resolves.
- D. You need to call the primary health care provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to explain to the mother that jaundice may seem to worsen before it eventually gets better. This is a common occurrence in hepatitis A. Option A about changing the child's diet is irrelevant to the concern raised by the mother and not supported by evidence. Option B suggesting the child is infectious again is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm as jaundice does not indicate reinfection. Option D, advising the mother to call the primary health care provider, is premature as the nurse can first provide education and reassurance regarding the expected course of jaundice in hepatitis A.
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