which explanation would the nurse manager give about using group therapy for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

2. An older adult who recently began self-administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injection. The nurse has assessed the client's skills during two previous office visits and knows that the client is capable of giving the daily injection. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in encouraging the client to assume total responsibility for the daily injections?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this scenario is option C. By acknowledging and affirming the client's demonstrated ability to self-administer the injection correctly, the nurse is providing positive reinforcement. This positive reinforcement helps to build the client's confidence and encourages them to take total responsibility for their daily injections. Option A, while positive, does not specifically reinforce the client's behavior related to giving the injection. Option B focuses on the client's feelings of nervousness, which may not be helpful in promoting independence. Option D, by offering help without assessing the client's actual needs, reinforces dependence on the nurse rather than encouraging self-reliance.

3. Which of these is a one-on-one communication between the nurse and another person?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Interpersonal communication is a one-on-one interaction between a nurse and another person that often occurs face-to-face. It involves direct communication between two individuals. Small-group communication involves interaction among a small number of people, not just one-on-one. Intrapersonal communication is internal communication that occurs within an individual's mind. Transpersonal communication involves interactions within a person's spiritual domain, which is beyond individual one-on-one communication.

4. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.

5. A 28-year-old woman is recovering from her third consecutive spontaneous abortion in 2 years. Which is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for this client at her follow-up appointment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client recovering from multiple spontaneous abortions is to encourage the client to verbalize her feelings about the loss. This allows the client to express and process her emotions, facilitating the grieving process and emotional healing. Focusing solely on the client's physical needs, as in choice A, overlooks the importance of addressing the emotional aspect of the client's experience. Choice C, reminding the client that she will be able to become pregnant again, fails to acknowledge the current loss and may minimize the client's feelings of grief. Choice D, encouraging the client to think of herself, her husband, and their future, does not directly address the client's immediate emotional needs related to the recent loss. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate intervention to support the client in coping with her emotional distress.

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