Nursing Elites

1. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

• A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
• B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
• C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
• D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

2. A client has been diagnosed with a form of terminal cancer and has started receiving hospice care. The nurse notes that both the client and his family avoid talking about the diagnosis. All attempts at discussion result in changing the subject. The nurse recognizes that this family is exhibiting:

• A. Closed awareness
• B. Mutual pretense
• C. Open awareness
• D. Powerless assessment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Mutual pretense.' Mutual pretense is a form of awareness as a response to death or dying in which those involved avoid discussing the situation. In this scenario, both the client and the family are aware of the terminal cancer diagnosis, but they choose not to talk about it openly. This behavior can stem from various reasons, such as trying to shield loved ones from grief, fear of the future, or discomfort with discussing emotions. 'Closed awareness' (Choice A) refers to a lack of awareness of the impending death, which is not the case here. 'Open awareness' (Choice C) involves open acknowledgment and discussion of the terminal illness, which is contrary to the behavior described. 'Powerless assessment' (Choice D) does not relate to the situation of avoiding discussing the diagnosis in the context of terminal cancer and hospice care.

3. Which source of stress would the nurse anticipate in a 5-year-old client?

• A. Jealousy
• B. Stubbornness
• C. Procrastination
• D. Companionship

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Procrastination, which refers to delaying completing chores or activities, is a common source of stress for 5-year-old clients. At this age, children may start experiencing stress related to the pressure of tasks or expectations. Jealousy and stubbornness are more typical sources of stress for 3- and 4-year-old clients who are still developing social and emotional skills. Companionship, on the other hand, is generally seen as a positive aspect in a child's life and is not typically a source of stress but rather a source of support and comfort.

4. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

• A. An attempt to punish the nursing staff
• B. A constructive method of accepting reality
• C. A defense against underlying depression and fear
• D. An effort to maintain life and to live it as fully as possible

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

5. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

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