NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?
- A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
- B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
- C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
- D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.
2. An older adult who recently began self-administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injection. The nurse has assessed the client's skills during two previous office visits and knows that the client is capable of giving the daily injection. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in encouraging the client to assume total responsibility for the daily injections?
- A. "I know you are capable of giving yourself the insulin."
- B. "Giving yourself the injection seems to make you nervous."
- C. "When I watched you give yourself the injection, you did it correctly."
- D. "Tell me what you want me to do to help you give yourself the injection at home."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this scenario is option C. By acknowledging and affirming the client's demonstrated ability to self-administer the injection correctly, the nurse is providing positive reinforcement. This positive reinforcement helps to build the client's confidence and encourages them to take total responsibility for their daily injections. Option A, while positive, does not specifically reinforce the client's behavior related to giving the injection. Option B focuses on the client's feelings of nervousness, which may not be helpful in promoting independence. Option D, by offering help without assessing the client's actual needs, reinforces dependence on the nurse rather than encouraging self-reliance.
3. The client believes that the illness is a punishment for sins. Which cultural health belief is the client communicating?
- A. Yin/Yang balance
- B. Biomedical belief
- C. Determinism belief
- D. Magicoreligious belief
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is communicating a magicoreligious belief by attributing the illness to punishment for sins. In this belief system, illness is seen as caused by supernatural forces or hexes, often related to spiritual or religious beliefs. The yin/yang balance belief system does not view illness as punishment but rather as an imbalance of opposing forces. Biomedical belief focuses on physical and biochemical processes as the cause of health and illness. Determinism belief revolves around outcomes being preordained and unchangeable, not related to punishment for sins.
4. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
- A. 18-24 years
- B. 25-34 years
- C. 35-44 years
- D. 45-64 years
Correct answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
5. The wife of a client who is dying says, 'I want to see him, but I can only come twice a week because of work, household chores, and caring for our cat and dog.' Which defense mechanism is the wife using?
- A. Projection
- B. Sublimation
- C. Compensation
- D. Rationalization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The wife is using rationalization as a defense mechanism. Rationalization involves offering a socially acceptable or logical explanation to justify an unacceptable feeling or behavior. In this scenario, the wife justifies her limited visits to her dying husband by citing other responsibilities such as work, household chores, and pet care. Projection involves denying one's unacceptable feelings and attributing them to others. Sublimation is the substitution of unacceptable feelings or drives with socially acceptable behaviors. Compensation involves making up for a perceived deficiency by emphasizing another perceived asset.
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