which explanation would the nurse manager give about using group therapy for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

2. After 5 years of unprotected intercourse, a childless couple comes to the fertility clinic. The husband tells the nurse that his parents have promised to make a down payment on a house for them if his wife gets pregnant this year. Which response would the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the emotional challenge the couple is facing due to the added pressure of the incentive from the husband's parents. By expressing empathy and understanding, the nurse encourages the couple to open up about their feelings and concerns. Choice B is not the best response as it dismisses the husband's situation and fails to address the emotional impact of the added pressure. Choice C focuses on the parents' offer rather than the couple's emotional state, which is not the primary concern in this situation. Choice D, mentioning the duration of infertility, may come across as insensitive and may hinder open communication by potentially making the couple feel judged or discouraged.

3. A 20-year-old female client with noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client. While respecting the client's beliefs, it is essential to provide education on maintaining hygiene during menstruation. This empowers the client with knowledge to make informed decisions. Options A and B can be considered after providing education. Option C, obtaining brochures, is not the priority as direct communication and teaching would be more effective in addressing the client's concerns.

4. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

5. By rolling contaminated gloves inside-out, the nurse is affecting which step in the chain of infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the nurse rolls contaminated gloves inside-out, they are manipulating the mode of transmission in the chain of infection. The gloves, which are contaminated, act as a vehicle for transferring pathogens from the reservoir's portal of exit to a potential portal of entry. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the action of rolling contaminated gloves does not directly relate to the portal of entry, reservoir, or portal of exit in the chain of infection.

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