which explanation would the nurse manager give about using group therapy for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.

2. What approach should the nurse use when a manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors asks the nurse to talk while the nurse is orienting a new client to the unit?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should respond to the manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors by setting realistic limits on behavior without rejecting the client. Therefore, the correct approach is to say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.' This response acknowledges the client's request while prioritizing the needs of the new client and setting appropriate boundaries. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suggesting that the client speak with another staff member would be a rejection of the client, not the behavior. Leaving the new client to attend to the manipulative client would encourage further manipulation and disrupt the orientation process for the new client. Introducing the two clients and suggesting a tour is inconsistent with setting limits and does not address the manipulative behavior being displayed.

3. A neonate born at 32 weeks' gestation and weighing 3 lb (1361 g) is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). When would the nurse take the neonate's mother to visit the infant?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The mother should see her infant as soon as possible to acknowledge the reality of the birth and begin bonding. Delaying the visit may impede maternal-infant bonding. The timing of the mother's visit should be based on her physical and emotional readiness, not solely on the infant's condition or the need for written permission. The nurse can independently facilitate the mother's visit without requiring a prescription from the primary healthcare provider.

4. A male client is laughing at a television program with his wife when the evening nurse enters the room. He says his foot is hurting and he would like a pain pill. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining a subjective estimate of the pain experience by asking the client to rate his pain helps the nurse determine which pain medication should be administered and also provides a baseline for evaluating the effectiveness of the medication. Medicating for pain should not be delayed to use it as a sleep medication, so encouraging him to wait until bedtime is incorrect. Option C is judgmental and inappropriate as all clients deserve prompt attention. Option D should be used as an adjunct to pain medication, not instead of medication, so instructing him in deep breathing exercises alone is not the priority in this situation.

5. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.

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