NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. For a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, which reaction is most likely to occur when the performance of a ritual is interrupted?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Hostility
- C. Aggression
- D. Withdrawal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is interrupted while performing a ritual, the most likely reaction is anxiety. The compulsive ritual serves as a coping mechanism to control anxiety, so any disruption to this ritual can heighten the individual's anxiety levels. Hostility is typically part of the disorder itself and not a direct reaction to the interruption of the ritual. Aggression may occur only if anxiety escalates to a panic level, leading to overt anger expression. Withdrawal is not a common behavioral pattern associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and is not a typical reaction to ritual interruption.
2. Which approach is best to use with a client who is angry and agitated?
- A. Confront the client about the behavior.
- B. Turn on the television to distract the client.
- C. Maintain a calm, consistent approach with the client.
- D. Explain to the client why the behavior is unacceptable.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with an angry and agitated client, it is crucial to maintain a calm and consistent approach. Consistency allows the client to predict the caregiver's behavior, which can help reduce their anxiety and agitation. Confronting the client about their behavior may escalate the situation and increase their anger. Using distractions like turning on the television is not addressing the underlying issue and may not be effective in calming the client. Explaining to the client why their behavior is unacceptable is not suitable in the moment of agitation, as the client may not be in a state to attend to logical explanations and perceived criticisms should be avoided to prevent further escalation.
3. When attempting to incorporate the Latino client's cultural background into the plan of care, which consideration is the most important?
- A. Socioeconomic considerations regarding hospitalization
- B. The meaning and attention the client places on the future
- C. The client's need to control care to ensure desired outcomes
- D. Inclusion of the family in the plan of care with the client's permission
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important consideration when incorporating the Latino client's cultural background into the plan of care is the inclusion of the family in the care plan with the client's permission. In Latino cultures, family plays a vital role, and there is a strong emphasis on family support during challenging times. This support can positively impact the client's health outcomes and overall well-being. Socioeconomic status, although relevant, does not carry more weight than usual in healthcare decisions. Latino clients typically focus on the present rather than the future, and they often attribute outcomes to external factors like fate or divine intervention. While the client's need for control is important, involving the family aligns more closely with the cultural values and preferences of Latino clients.
4. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.
5. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
- B. Get the guardian's permission to give the medication.
- C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
- D. Complete an incident report and notify the supervisor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.
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