NCLEX NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. Which defense mechanism would the nurse conclude a female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, who washes her hands more than 20 times a day, is using to ease anxiety?
- A. Undoing
- B. Projection
- C. Introjection
- D. Displacement
Correct answer: A: Undoing
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Undoing.' Undoing is a defense mechanism where the individual tries to negate a previous act to relieve guilt or anxiety. In this case, the client washing her hands excessively is trying to 'undo' perceived contamination or guilt associated with not washing. Projection (choice B) involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or impulses to others, which is not demonstrated in this scenario. Introjection (choice C) is the process of internalizing beliefs or values of others, which is also not applicable in this context. Displacement (choice D) involves redirecting emotions from one target to another, which does not align with the client's behavior of handwashing as a response to anxiety in this case.
2. A patient is admitted to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and is diagnosed with a possible pulmonary embolus. How should the nurse prepare the patient for diagnostic testing to confirm the diagnosis?
- A. Start an IV so contrast media may be given
- B. Ensure that the patient has been NPO for at least 6 hours.
- C. Inform radiology that a radioactive glucose preparation is needed
- D. Instruct the patient to undress to the waist and remove any metal objects
Correct answer: Start an IV so contrast media may be given
Rationale: For diagnosing pulmonary emboli, spiral computed tomography (CT) scans are commonly used, and contrast media may be given intravenously (IV) during the scan to enhance visualization of blood vessels. Chest x-rays are not typically diagnostic for pulmonary embolism. When preparing for a chest x-ray, the patient needs to undress and remove any metal objects. Bronchoscopy is used for examining the bronchial tree, not for assessing vascular changes, and the patient should be NPO 6 to 12 hours before the procedure. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans are primarily used to detect malignancies, and a radioactive glucose preparation is utilized for this purpose.
3. When admitting a 64-year-old patient with acute pancreatitis, the healthcare provider should specifically inquire about a history of
- A. diabetes mellitus.
- B. high-protein diet.
- C. cigarette smoking.
- D. alcohol consumption.
Correct answer: alcohol consumption.
Rationale: In patients with acute pancreatitis, alcohol consumption is a significant risk factor and one of the most common causes in the United States. It is crucial to assess alcohol intake as it plays a key role in the development of pancreatitis. While cigarette smoking, diabetes mellitus, and high-protein diets can contribute to various health issues, they are not directly associated with the development of acute pancreatitis.
4. As a valued member of the team on your nursing care unit, you are trying to determine whether the team is doing well. Which of the following is a sign that your team is successful?
- A. Conflict occurs but is seen as an opportunity for team growth and development.
- B. No negative feelings are expressed, leading to everyone being happy and satisfied.
- C. Mistakes are not tolerated and result in disciplinary action.
- D. People avoid taking risks and stick to the status quo.
Correct answer: Conflict occurs but is seen as an opportunity for team growth and development.
Rationale: One of the key indicators of a successful team is the ability to handle conflict positively. Conflict, when managed well, can lead to team growth and development. Choice B is incorrect because suppressing negative feelings does not indicate team success; open communication is crucial. Choice C is incorrect as successful teams view mistakes as learning opportunities rather than resorting to disciplinary action. Choice D is incorrect because successful teams are often innovative and willing to take risks rather than maintaining the status quo.
5. A 27-year-old writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially the nurse should plan this for a manic client:
- A. Set realistic limits to the client’s behavior
- B. Repeat verbal instructions as often as needed
- C. Allow the client to express feelings to relieve tension
- D. Assign staff to be with the client at all times to help maintain control
Correct answer: Set realistic limits to the client’s behavior
Rationale: For a manic client who is hyperactive and may engage in injurious activities, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is crucial to ensure safety. A quiet environment with firm and consistent limits helps in managing the client's behavior effectively. While repeating verbal instructions can be helpful due to the client's distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety concerns. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but it should be done through non-destructive methods. Assigning staff to be with the client at all times is not realistic or feasible in the clinical setting and does not address the core issue of managing the client's behavior and ensuring safety.
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