which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time out when disciplining a 4 year old
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.

2. Which response would the nurse make to a client who says, 'The voices say I'll be safe only if I stay in this room, wear these clothes, and avoid stepping on the cracks between the floor tiles'?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The response, 'I understand that these voices are real to you, but I want you to know that I don't hear them,' demonstrates empathy and validation of the client's experience while also gently bringing in the nurse's reality. This response acknowledges the client's feelings without reinforcing the hallucinations. Asking about the characteristics of the voices (Choice A) can inadvertently validate the hallucinations. Offering false reassurance (Choice B) may not be helpful as it does not address the client's distress. Encouraging the client to leave the room and keep busy (Choice D) is nontherapeutic as it disregards the client's experience and may increase anxiety.

3. The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client stating, 'This is a new pill I have never taken before,' is the correct answer as it indicates a potential discrepancy in the medication order. This statement requires further assessment to ensure the medication is correct, verify if it is a new prescription or a different manufacturer, and determine if the client needs additional instructions. While the timing of medication administration (option A) is important, it may not be as critical as ensuring the accuracy of the medication being administered. Option B, regarding the cost of pills, is relevant for discharge planning but does not directly impact the immediate administration of the medication. Option C, expressing tiredness from taking pills daily, may warrant discussion on adherence or side effects but does not raise immediate concerns about the specific medication being administered.

4. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

5. A client who exhibits blurred and double vision and muscular weakness is informed of the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS). The client becomes visibly upset. Which response would the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The response 'That must have shocked you. Tell me what the health care provider told you about it' acknowledges the effect of the diagnosis on the client and explores what is known. This response shows empathy and encourages the client to share their understanding. There is no evidence of ineffective coping, so a referral to a psychiatrist is not necessary at this initial stage. The statement 'Don't worry; early treatment often alleviates symptoms of the disease' provides false reassurance as the course of MS varies for each individual and may not always respond well to treatment. The statement 'You should be glad we caught it early so it can be cured' does not address the client's current emotional state and is inaccurate; MS is a chronic autoimmune disease that currently has no cure.

Similar Questions

A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?
Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?
What psychodynamic process is suggested by a client calling the emergency department during a suicide attempt?
Which source of stress would the nurse anticipate in a 5-year-old client?
What should be the initial action for a client admitted to an alcohol rehabilitation center who has a strong odor of alcohol on their breath on the fourth day after admission?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses