NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?
- A. I send my child to their bedroom for misbehaving.
- B. We limit time-out to 4 minutes per incident.
- C. Putting my child in a dark closet for time-out is very effective.
- D. I explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining my child.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.
2. A terminally ill client repeatedly talks about her son's upcoming wedding and how much she wants to attend. Which stage of the K�bler-Ross theory of death and dying is the client displaying?
- A. Anger
- B. Denial
- C. Bargaining
- D. Acceptance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is displaying the stage of bargaining in the K�bler-Ross theory of death and dying. During the bargaining stage, individuals attempt to negotiate for more time or a different outcome in the face of impending death. In this scenario, the client expressing a desire to attend her son's wedding and discussing it frequently reflects a form of bargaining for additional time to be present for the event. Anger, on the other hand, involves extreme expressions of emotion ranging from irritation to rage. Denial is characterized by an inability to accept the reality of the situation. Acceptance signifies coming to terms with the circumstances and may lead to decreased interest in people and surroundings.
3. Which behavior by the client exhibits denial after a recent diagnosis?
- A. Attempts to minimize the illness
- B. Lacks an emotional response to the illness
- C. Refuses to discuss the condition with the client's spouse
- D. Expresses displeasure with the prescribed activity program
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Attempts to minimize the illness.' This behavior is a classic sign of denial, where the individual tries to downplay the seriousness of the illness to cope with it. By minimizing the illness, the client avoids facing the reality of the situation, which is characteristic of denial. Lacking an emotional response to the illness suggests suppression of emotions rather than denial. Refusing to discuss the condition with the spouse may stem from other issues like relationship strain or fear of causing distress, but it doesn't directly indicate denial. Expressing displeasure with the prescribed activity program typically reflects displaced anger, not denial of the illness.
4. According to psychodynamic theory, what purpose do delusions serve?
- A. Delusions are a defense against anxiety caused by real or imagined threats.
- B. Magical thinking is a delusion that ensures desirable outcomes.
- C. Delusions are a method of dealing with and interpreting external stimuli.
- D. Subconsciously, delusions are a way to safely express anger and hostility.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: According to psychodynamic theory, delusions serve as a defense mechanism against anxiety triggered by real or perceived threats. Delusions are the individual's unconscious way of protecting themselves from overwhelming feelings of anxiety. Magical thinking, on the other hand, involves believing that one's thoughts can influence external events. This is not the same as delusions. Delusions are not a way of interpreting external stimuli but rather a defense mechanism. Expressing anger and hostility is typically associated with defense mechanisms like displacement or projection, not delusions.
5. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?
- A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
- B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
- C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
- D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.
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