NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?
- A. I send my child to their bedroom for misbehaving.
- B. We limit time-out to 4 minutes per incident.
- C. Putting my child in a dark closet for time-out is very effective.
- D. I explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining my child.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.
2. The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Nutrition
- B. Elimination
- C. Activity
- D. Safety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In caring for a client with severe depression, ensuring safety is a top priority. Suicide prevention measures must be incorporated into the care plan as individuals with depression are at increased risk. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, safety takes precedence due to the critical need to prevent harm or self-harm in depressed individuals.
3. A female client who is undergoing infertility testing is taught how to examine her cervical mucus. After listening to the instructions, the client says, 'That sounds gross. I don't think I can do it.' Which conclusion would the nurse make from this statement?
- A. The client is unduly fastidious.
- B. The client feels that having a baby is not that important.
- C. The client may be uncomfortable with performing manual examination of the genitals.
- D. The client is afraid that she is the cause of the infertility.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client's statement expressing discomfort with the procedure indicates a potential unease with performing a manual examination of her genitals. It is not uncommon for individuals to feel uncomfortable or anxious about such intimate procedures. The nurse should explore this further with the client to address any concerns or fears. The option stating that the client is unduly fastidious lacks evidence and is not supported by the client's statement. The assumption that the client does not value having a baby is not warranted based on the given statement. While self-blame is a common emotional response in cases of infertility, the client's statement does not directly suggest this as the primary concern in this scenario.
4. When taking a client's blood pressure, the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
- B. Re-inflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
- C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
- D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the nurse is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard while taking a client's blood pressure, the best action is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. Deflating the cuff for this duration allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring an accurate reading on that extremity a second time. Option A of deflating the cuff completely and immediately reattempting the reading could lead to a falsely high reading. Option B, re-inflating the cuff completely and leaving it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds, reduces circulation, causes pain, and may alter the reading. Option D, documenting the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen, is not a reliable method for assessing blood pressure and does not address the issue of obtaining an accurate reading.
5. A seriously ill female client tells the nurse, 'I am so tired and in so much pain! Please help me to die.' Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
- A. Administer the prescribed maximum dose of pain medication.
- B. Talk with the client about her feelings related to her own death.
- C. Collaborate with the healthcare provider about initiating antidepressant therapy.
- D. Refer the client to the ethics committee of her local healthcare facility.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should first assess the client's feelings about her death and determine the extent to which this statement expresses her true feelings. The client may need additional pain management, but further assessment is needed before implementing option A. Option B is the correct response as it focuses on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option C is premature as initiating antidepressant therapy without a thorough assessment may not be appropriate. Option D is not the best course of action at this point; involving the ethics committee should be considered only after a comprehensive evaluation and discussion with the client.
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