which explanation best describes what is known about the pathophysiology of dementia of the alzheimer type
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Questions

1. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.

2. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate when working with the family of a client who is being treated for substance abuse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When working with the family of a client undergoing substance abuse treatment, it is crucial to support not only the client but also their family. Providing referrals for community resources and support groups is an effective intervention as it helps the family access additional support and information to cope with the challenges related to the client's substance abuse. This empowers the family to enhance their understanding of the situation and develop effective coping strategies. Advocating for the client before the family (choice A) may lead to conflicts and hinder the therapeutic process, while taking the side of the family before the client (choice C) can jeopardize the client's progress and trust. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention in this scenario is to provide referrals for community resources and support groups to ensure holistic care for both the client and their family.

3. A toddler is 26 months old and has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the toddler in?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct stage for a toddler who is 26 months old, according to Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, is Autonomy vs. shame and doubt. This stage occurs between 18 months to 3 years of age. During this stage, children are focused on developing a greater sense of control and independence. Choice A, Trust vs. mistrust, is the first stage occurring from birth to 18 months, where infants learn to trust or mistrust their caregivers based on their care. Choice B, Initiative vs. guilt, is the third stage occurring from 3 to 5 years, where children start to assert themselves more. Choice D, Intimacy vs. isolation, is a stage occurring in adulthood, not relevant to a toddler's development.

4. What should be the initial action for a client admitted to an alcohol rehabilitation center who has a strong odor of alcohol on their breath on the fourth day after admission?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The initial action should be to locate the alcoholic substance. The nurse needs to find and remove the substance to prevent the client or others from consuming more alcohol. Asking where the client obtained the alcohol is not the priority; the focus is on ensuring the client's safety. Conveying empathy and support is essential but should not be the first action in this scenario. Documenting the client's drinking behavior can be done after ensuring immediate safety measures are in place.

5. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

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When a client with newly diagnosed chronic bronchitis tells the home health nurse about continuing to smoke 1 or 2 cigarettes a day and not doing the prescribed pulmonary physiotherapy exercises, which response by the nurse is best?
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