Nursing Elites

1. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?

• A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
• B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
• C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
• D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.

2. What psychodynamic process is suggested by a client calling the emergency department during a suicide attempt?

• A. A cry for help
• B. A need for attention
• C. Ambivalence about dying
• D. An inability to stick to a decision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ambivalence about dying.' When a client calls the emergency department during a suicide attempt, it suggests conflicting feelings about living and dying. This act can indicate an unconscious desire to be stopped from dying, showing ambivalence between the wish to die and the wish to live. It is not primarily a cry for attention or a need to punish others. The client's intention of suicide alongside seeking help demonstrates the struggle between life and death, making ambivalence the key psychodynamic process at play.

3. A client has a nursing diagnosis of Altered sleep patterns related to nocturia. Which client instruction is important for the nurse to provide?

• A. Decrease intake of fluids after the evening meal.
• B. Drink a glass of cranberry juice every day.
• C. Drink a glass of warm decaffeinated beverage at bedtime.
• D. Consult the healthcare provider about a sleeping pill.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nocturia is characterized by urination during the night, disrupting sleep patterns. Instructing the client to decrease intake of fluids after the evening meal (Option A) can help reduce the production of urine, thereby decreasing the need to void at night. Cranberry juice (Option B) is beneficial for preventing bladder infections but does not address the issue of nocturia. While warm decaffeinated beverages (Option C) may promote sleep, consuming fluids close to bedtime can exacerbate nocturia. Consulting the healthcare provider about a sleeping pill (Option D) is not the first-line intervention and may lead to urinary incontinence if the client is sedated and unable to awaken to void, worsening the nocturia issue.

4. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
• B. Get the guardian's permission to give the medication.
• C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
• D. Complete an incident report and notify the supervisor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.

5. A parent of a young child says, 'I'm so upset! The doctor prescribed an antidepressant!' Which response is best?

• A. Tell me more about what's bothering you.'
• B. Weren't you told about the need for the medication?'
• C. I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.'
• D. 'Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this situation is to express empathy and encourage the parent to share more about their concerns. Option A ('Tell me more about what's bothering you.') allows the nurse to show understanding and gather more information to address the parent's distress effectively. Option B ('Weren't you told about the need for the medication?') is confrontational and may make the parent defensive, hindering effective communication. Option C ('I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.') is premature; the nurse should first assess the parent's feelings before deciding on further actions. Option D ('Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.') assumes without clarification, which is not appropriate; the nurse should validate the prescription before suggesting alternative reasons.

Similar Questions