NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?
- A. Perform cough and deep breathing exercises hourly.
- B. Turn from side to side in bed at least every 2 hours.
- C. Dorsiflex and plantarflex the feet 10 times each hour
- D. Drink approximately 4 ounces of water every hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, the nurse should instruct the client to perform dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises regularly. These exercises help promote venous return and prevent venous thrombus formation. Options A, B, and D are beneficial in managing other complications of immobility, such as atelectasis and pressure ulcers, but they are less effective in preventing venous thrombosis compared to dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises.
2. Which intervention would the nurse use to provide emotional support for a resident in a nursing home who recently immigrated from another country?
- A. Offer choices consistent with the resident's heritage.
- B. Assist the resident in adjusting to the nursing home culture.
- C. Ensure that the resident is treated respectfully like the other residents.
- D. Correct any misconceptions the resident may have about appropriate health practices.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When providing emotional support to a resident in a nursing home who recently immigrated from another country, it is essential for the nurse to offer choices that align with the resident's heritage. This approach respects the resident's cultural beliefs and practices, promoting a sense of familiarity and comfort. Assisting the resident in adjusting to the nursing home culture is important but may not address the specific emotional support needed. While ensuring that the resident is treated respectfully is crucial, offering choices consistent with the resident's heritage goes a step further by acknowledging and valuing the resident's cultural background. Correcting any misconceptions about health practices is essential, but in this context, emotional support through cultural sensitivity takes precedence.
3. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
- B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
- D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.
4. A neonate born at 32 weeks' gestation and weighing 3 lb (1361 g) is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). When would the nurse take the neonate's mother to visit the infant?
- A. When the infant's condition has stabilized
- B. When the infant is out of immediate danger
- C. When the primary health care provider has provided written permission
- D. When the mother is well enough to be taken to the NICU
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The mother should see her infant as soon as possible to acknowledge the reality of the birth and begin bonding. Delaying the visit may impede maternal-infant bonding. The timing of the mother's visit should be based on her physical and emotional readiness, not solely on the infant's condition or the need for written permission. The nurse can independently facilitate the mother's visit without requiring a prescription from the primary healthcare provider.
5. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
- A. 18-24 years
- B. 25-34 years
- C. 35-44 years
- D. 45-64 years
Correct answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
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