a toddler is 26 months old and has been recently admitted to the hospital according to erikson which of the following stages is the toddler in
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX Psychosocial Questions

1. A toddler is 26 months old and has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the toddler in?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct stage for a toddler who is 26 months old, according to Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, is Autonomy vs. shame and doubt. This stage occurs between 18 months to 3 years of age. During this stage, children are focused on developing a greater sense of control and independence. Choice A, Trust vs. mistrust, is the first stage occurring from birth to 18 months, where infants learn to trust or mistrust their caregivers based on their care. Choice B, Initiative vs. guilt, is the third stage occurring from 3 to 5 years, where children start to assert themselves more. Choice D, Intimacy vs. isolation, is a stage occurring in adulthood, not relevant to a toddler's development.

2. The client finds a client crying behind a locked bathroom door. The client will not open the door. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's first concern should be for the client's safety, so an immediate assessment of the client's situation is needed. Option D is the correct choice as it involves directly addressing the client's emotional state and attempting to understand the reason for the distress. In a vulnerable situation like this, the nurse should take the lead in assessing and communicating with the client. Option A is incorrect as it would delegate the responsibility to someone else when the nurse should be the one to initiate the assessment. Option B is inappropriate as it does not actively address the client's emotional needs or safety. Option C is also incorrect because leaving the client alone without further assessment could potentially endanger the client's well-being.

3. A college athlete sustained a complete transection of the spinal cord while practicing on a trampoline. The health care provider explained that return of function to the lower extremities is not likely. Two weeks later, the client verbalizes the need to practice for an upcoming tournament. Which conclusion would the nurse make about the client's statement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exhibiting denial.' Denial is a common defense mechanism when facing a serious health issue. The individual rejects the existence of the problem due to the overwhelming anxiety and emotional distress it causes. In this case, the athlete's desire to practice for an upcoming tournament despite being informed about the unlikely return of lower extremity function indicates denial of the severity of their condition. Choice B, 'Verbalizing a fantasy,' is incorrect as a fantasy involves creating imagined events to fulfill unconscious wishes, which is not evident here. Choice C, 'No longer able to adapt,' is incorrect because the client is actually demonstrating a maladaptive coping mechanism by denying the reality of their situation. Choice D, 'Motivated to recover mobility,' is incorrect as the client's goal of practicing for a tournament does not align with the realistic expectation of recovering mobility after a complete spinal cord transection.

4. For a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, which reaction is most likely to occur when the performance of a ritual is interrupted?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is interrupted while performing a ritual, the most likely reaction is anxiety. The compulsive ritual serves as a coping mechanism to control anxiety, so any disruption to this ritual can heighten the individual's anxiety levels. Hostility is typically part of the disorder itself and not a direct reaction to the interruption of the ritual. Aggression may occur only if anxiety escalates to a panic level, leading to overt anger expression. Withdrawal is not a common behavioral pattern associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and is not a typical reaction to ritual interruption.

5. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.

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