Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted with a diagnosis of cervical cancer tells the nurse, 'I haven't had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear for more than 8 years. I probably wouldn't be in the hospital today if I'd had those tests more often.' Which response would the nurse provide?

• A. ''Please tell me why you waited so long.''
• B. 'You feel as though you've neglected your health.''
• C. 'It's never too late to start taking care of yourself.''
• D. 'Most women hate to have Pap smears done, but they're really important.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response, ''You feel as though you've neglected your health,'' is appropriate as it indicates recognition of expressed feelings, encouraging verbalization. This response is nondirective and reflective. Choice A, asking the client why she waited so long, ignores the client's current emotional needs and may cut off communication. Choice C, stating that it is never too late to start taking care of her health, is judgmental as it implies that the client has been negligent. Choice D, although acknowledging the importance of Pap smears, fails to address the client's current emotional state and needs.

2. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?

• A. Self-care deficit
• B. Functional incontinence
• C. Fluid volume deficit
• D. High risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'High risk for infection.' When caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, the highest priority is to prevent infections, as these catheters are a significant source of infection. Options A and B, self-care deficit and functional incontinence, may be concerns but are not directly related to the indwelling catheter. Option C, fluid volume deficit, is not typically associated with the presence of an indwelling urinary catheter.

3. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?

• A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
• B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
• C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
• D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.

4. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

5. A client is being assessed by a nurse for increased anxiety, restlessness, and insomnia. Which of the following interventions is the first priority for the nurse?

• A. Administer anti-anxiety medications as prescribed by the healthcare provider
• B. Engage in a conversation with the client regarding methods to enhance rest and sleep
• C. Escort the client to a private room and stay with them
• D. Review the client's medical history to determine previous treatment for these issues

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first priority when dealing with a client experiencing potential mental health issues is to ensure their safety. Taking the client to a private room helps to reduce external stimuli and staying with them ensures constant monitoring and support. This intervention can prevent any escalation of anxiety or restlessness and promote a sense of security for the client. Engaging in a conversation about improving rest and sleep is important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Administering medications should only be done after the client's safety is assured. Reviewing the client's medical history, while important, is not the immediate priority when the client is exhibiting acute symptoms of anxiety and restlessness.

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