Nursing Elites

1. Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?

• A. Angina at rest
• B. Thrombus formation
• C. Dizziness
• D. Falling blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombus formation is a critical complication of cardiac catheterization that the nurse should monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure. A thrombus can form in the blood vessels, obstructing blood flow and potentially leading to serious consequences such as embolism or organ ischemia. While angina at rest, dizziness, and falling blood pressure are potential complications following cardiac catheterization, they are not typically associated with the immediate post-procedural period. Monitoring for thrombus formation is essential to ensure early detection and intervention, which can prevent serious complications.

2. A client is taking a walk down the hallway when she suddenly realizes that she needs to use the restroom. Although she tries to make it to the bathroom on time, she is incontinent of urine before reaching the toilet. What type of incontinence does this situation represent?

• A. Relex incontinence
• B. Urge incontinence
• C. Total incontinence
• D. Functional incontinence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Functional incontinence occurs when a client develops an urge to void but may not be able to reach the toilet in time. In this scenario, the client had the urge to use the restroom but was unable to make it in time, leading to incontinence. Functional incontinence may be related to conditions that cause the client to forget bladder sensation until the last minute, such as cognitive changes, or the client may have mobility problems that prevent her from reaching the bathroom in time. Choice A, Reflex incontinence, is incorrect as reflex incontinence is characterized by the involuntary loss of urine due to hyperreflexia of the detrusor muscle. Choice B, Urge incontinence, is not the correct answer as urge incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong desire to void. Choice C, Total incontinence, is also incorrect as it refers to the continuous and unpredictable loss of urine, not specifically related to the inability to reach the toilet in time.

3. Which of the following descriptions best describes the function of the thyroid gland?

• A. The thyroid gland converts glucose into glycogen
• B. The thyroid gland secretes cortisol during times of stress
• C. The thyroid gland regulates body metabolism
• D. The thyroid gland affects skin pigmentation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The thyroid gland is responsible for secreting thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which work to regulate the metabolism of the body's cells. The primary function of the thyroid gland is to control the body's metabolic rate, affecting processes such as heart rate, temperature regulation, and energy levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the thyroid gland is not involved in converting glucose into glycogen, secreting cortisol, or affecting skin pigmentation. Instead, the primary role of the thyroid gland is to regulate the metabolism and energy balance in the body.

4. The functional health pattern assessment data states: 'Eats three meals a day and is of normal weight for height.' The nurse should draw which of the following conclusions about this data? Select all that apply.

• A. Client has an actual health problem
• B. Client has a wellness diagnosis
• C. Collaborative health problem needs to be written
• D. Possible nursing diagnosis exists

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The assessment data provided indicates a healthy pattern of nutrition and a normal weight for height, suggesting a positive health status. This aligns with a wellness diagnosis, such as 'Potential for enhanced nutrition,' which focuses on improving health further. An actual health problem refers to a current health issue present in the client, which is not evident in this data. Collaborative health problems involve interprofessional collaboration and are not indicated based on the information provided. While a diet assessment may be needed to evaluate food quality, the initial data suggests a wellness-focused approach to care.

5. A 6-month-old infant has been brought to the well-child clinic for a checkup. The infant is currently sleeping. What would the nurse do first when beginning the examination?

• A. Wake the infant before beginning the examination.
• B. Examine the infant's hips before the infant wakes up.
• C. Auscultate the lungs and heart while the infant is still sleeping.
• D. Begin with the assessment of the eye and continue with the remainder of the examination in a head-to-toe approach.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the infant is quiet or sleeping, it is an ideal time to assess the cardiac, respiratory, and abdominal systems. It is recommended not to wake the infant unnecessarily. Auscultating the lungs and heart while the infant is still sleeping allows for a comprehensive assessment without disturbing the infant. Examining the infant's hips prematurely may disrupt the infant's sleep. Starting with an assessment of the eye is not appropriate as it is an invasive procedure and should be performed towards the end of the examination after the non-invasive assessments have been completed.

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